Defining "Perfect"

OK, James. 'Slpain something to me. Exactly how did God guide the translators of the KJV over and above any other group of translators?

Is it because of their character? There have been numerous accounts doccumented on this very Board as to the moral grain of many of the KJV translators.

Is it because of their superior, advanced educations? I will admit that they were very knowledgable, but I cannot see nor believe that the KJV translators were so super-duper studious. They did not have access to the vast depths of knowledge now available, and everything about the translating was done by hand (scribal errors, anyone?). So, gee, I guess a bunch of guys from 600 years ago were super-duper smart, and anyone in the last 150 years or so only measure up to a box of rocks, huh?

Was it because of their purer beliefs? These were Anglicans, in a day and age when the only difference between an Anglican and a Catholic was whose ring they kissed. And let us not forget that they firmly upheld the baptism of infants.

Was it because of their Baptist heritage? Pwwwt! They had Baptists tortured and mutilated because the Baptists would not accept their decrees.

Was it because the people chose the KJV over every other translation? Well, it's not like they had a choice, since King James outlawed every translation of the bible but the Authorized.

So, tell me, James...exactly how DID God guide the translators of the KJV over and above any other group of translators?

In Christ,
Trotter

 

Why not ask how He parted the Red Sea?

 

I guess the same way He guided two necromancers--you know,the "fathers" of textual criticism(rationalism)--to FINALY get it right using Egyptian texts.

Oh,and FYI,the two mentioned were in fact ANGLICAN!!

 

Slambo,

You do realize that in affirming that advanced revelation, et.al. in the manner you do, you, who claim to be a fundamental, Bible-believing Christian are, in point of fact, using the same definition of revelation that the Catholic Magisterium, classical liberalism, and neo-orthodoxy all affirm, don't you?

Oh, the irony!

 

This is too easy...

Unlike Trotter's question, the text of Exodus itself provides the answer, James. He used a great wind. Read Exodus 14:21.

And Moses stretched out his hand over the sea; and the LORD caused the sea to go back by a strong east wind all that night, and made the sea dry land, and the waters were divided.

See, I asked and the Lord did answer. However, I can't find the answer to Trotter's question.

 

This is too easy...

Unlike Trotter's question, the text of Exodus itself provides the answer, James. He used a great wind. Read Exodus 14:21.

And Moses stretched out his hand over the sea; and the LORD caused the sea to go back by a strong east wind all that night, and made the sea dry land, and the waters were divided.

See, I asked and the Lord did answer. However, I can't find the answer to Trotter's question. </font>[/QUOTE]Very well, the Lord caused the sea to go back by a strong east wind. The Lord caused the KJV translators to translate correctly by His Spirit.

 

Gene has a Scripture concerning the "strong east wind".

So, James where is yours concerning the Spirit causing the KJV translators to correctly translate?

HankD

 

I'm working on it, as soon as you guys translate me a perfect bible it should be in there, right? No, seriously, I'm working on a study, maybe its there, maybe its not. I'll let you know how it goes.

 

James Newman:Very well, the Lord caused the sea to go back by a strong east wind. The Lord caused the KJV translators to translate correctly by His Spirit.

There were over 600K witnesses to God's PHYSICAL parting of the Red Sea. Where are ANY witnesses to His Spirit's guiding ONLY the AV translators to the exclusion of all others? Did He guide them to make the proven booboos in the KJV, or is Dr. Ruckman right in saying the KJV corrects its sources?

 

Go get the originals out, so we can check the proven booboos, then we can figure that part out for ourselves.

 

I'll/we'll be waiting (Lord willing).



HankD

 

Roby asks:

James answers:

But James, Dr. Ruckman didn't have the originals either, so according to your logic how could he make that statement?

Do KJVO folks believe that both the King James translators and Dr. Ruckman has apostolic authority?
Where did he get his inspiration/authority not being a "bishop" in the Anglo-Catholic apostolic line of succession?

Was it Mormon style, ala Joseph Smith receiving it from John the Baptist (or whatever)?

HankD

 

I believe Joey Smith's "seer's stone" is in one of the Mormon temples. Maybe certain people should take a little vacation and stare it for a few hours.

 

James Newman:Go get the originals out, so we can check the proven booboos, then we can figure that part out for ourselves.

I don't got'em. Do YOU?

However, no Greek scholar has ever shown me "Easter" in Acts 12:4 in any existing ms. All they've ever shown me has 'pascha', Koine Greek for "Passover".

And none has ever shown me any Greek in Romans 11;5 for "the image of".

If YOU have the originals, please set them straight.

 

James_Newman wrote:

Gee, the intellectual depth astounds me...

If you don't have an answer, be honest to just say so.

In Christ,
Trotter

 

Slambo wrote:

Typical KJVO dodge...sling mud (unsubstantiated, at that) and run. Besides, W&H are pretty much ignored by the majority of bible scholars.

Oh, and you may want remember that the TR is the product of textual criticism...cobbled together by a humanist Catholic monk.

And this helps your arguement for the KJV translators (Anglicans all) how?

In Christ,
Trotter

 

Gee, the intellectual depth astounds me...

If you don't have an answer, be honest to just say so.

In Christ,
Trotter </font>[/QUOTE]I think it is funny though, that you can accept that He can create a big wind to part the Red Sea without requiring Him to show you the fan.

 

James Newman:I think it is funny though, that you can accept that He can create a big wind to part the Red Sea without requiring Him to show you the fan.

And I think it's even funnier that some people can believe in their own minds that He made the KJV the ONLY valid English BV without requiring Him to show anyone the first quark of evidence to prove it.

 

Is that what I believe?

 

James Newman:Is that what I believe?

I dunno...I flunked Mind-Reading 101.

But if the shoe fits......