Did God Die In 1611?

What part of "attacking the KJV bible is not the solution to KJVOism" don't you understand?

 

There is no proof about texts. But I can say you are the one attacking Alexandrian texts so its up to you to find fault with them not me to prove your texts are wrong.

 

the above post was meant for homebound.

 

Which, of course, is NOT THE POINT! KJVOism isn't about archaic words! It is about a denial of historic and manuscript evidence!

Only a [snip]would insist that the word "bible" is a proper noun and require capitalization.

[ June 27, 2004, 12:51 PM: Message edited by: Christ4Kildare ]

 

I agree. When Homebound condemns the Alexandrian text she also condemn 95% of the text type from which the KJV was translated. Everyone who has ever looked at both text types knows they agree 95% of the time, and of the 5% of the time they disagree, 90% of those disagreements are simply minor differences in the spelling of Greek words. I wonder why they attack the Alexandrian manuscripts for spelling differences and in the same breath excuse the 70,000 spelling differences between the AV1611 and the KJV1762/1769?

Now, I will be the first to admit I prefer the Byzantine text type over the Alexandrian text type, and believe the historic evidence more strongly suggests it to be the best representative of the original manuscripts, but, nevertheless, the Alexandrian text is still more like the Byzantine text then the AV1611 is like the KJV1762/1769!

 

Well of course it's gotta look like the real thing.And yes,it will match "95%" of the time;BUT,the 5% is leaven--Begining with the Arian rendering of John 1:18:A little leaven leaveneth the whole lump,Galatians 5:9.

 

That is why we, "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. (2 Timothy 2:15)

No diversion, just showing that the other versions has words that cannot be understood. As I have said before, the only reason the Bible is difficult to read is laziness on the reader, myself included. Sure there are some words that are not used today, and/or have changed meaning, but a new translation every time a word changes is not necessary. I have learned that reading in context is a big helper. Also praying that God will give one understanding of his word helps also.

 

I do not have the knowledge to do this. However, in the Bible, God saved his people(Israel) from Pharaoh, who was in Egypt. Alexandria is in Egypt, so the way I see it is, no good thing came from Egypt.

 

Homebound:I do not have the knowledge to do this. However, in the Bible, God saved his people(Israel) from Pharaoh, who was in Egypt. Alexandria is in Egypt, so the way I see it is, no good thing came from Egypt.

God sent J&M with Jesus to live in Egypt till herod died.

Apollos came from Alexandria.

And from the KJV:

Isaiah 19:24
In that day shall Israel be the third with Egypt and with Assyria, even a blessing in the midst of the land: 25Whom the LORD of hosts shall bless, saying, Blessed be **Egypt my people**, and Assyria the work of my hands, and Israel mine inheritance.

 

But HOW can you maintain your position when the Bible(KJB)is SILENT concerning Alexandria and the word of God!!??? The Bible makes it plain in Acts that the word of God has it's roots in Syria(Byzantium).FACT!


To Ape what you say:I want Biblical proof for your position!

 

Anti-Alexandrian:But HOW can you maintain your position when the Bible(KJB)is SILENT concerning Alexandria and the word of God!!???

The KJV is silent about the Chinese, Japanese, and all the people of the two American continents, as well as many others. Did not Jesus die for their sins also?


The Bible makes it plain in Acts that the word of God has it's roots in Syria(Byzantium).FACT!

BUUZZZ!

NOT fact! The OT was written largely in Israel or Judah, while the NT was written in various places from Jerusalem to Rome to several Greek cities, and other cities in Asia Minor under Roman control. The ROOTS of the NT are from the Judea area where JESUS walked. No matter where the Gospels were written, they're narrations of Jesus' earthly life in the land promised to Israel.

 

Uh, I think you may have missed AA's point. No part of the NT was directed to churches in China, Japan, or the Americas.

Uh, well, for the most part, AA is correct.

Uh, check out where those writings were addressed to.

The Gospel accounts were written starting about 65-70 AD for Matthew, Mark, and Luke, and John sometime after 90AD. Ask yourself where those men were at that time. None of them were in Jerusalem.

But where were the writers and where were the writings distributed?

Acts was written from the same place at about the same time as Luke.

Romans was written TO Rome during Paul's 3rd missionary journey, probably from Corinth, or possible Philippi.

In fact, all of the NT was written from places which we call Byzantium. The Greek city of Byzantium was founded in 667 BC, and Constantine made it the capital of his Eastern Roman Empire (Byzantium) in 313AD.

Even more important, the vast majority of the NT writings were addressed to cities within the Byzantine Empire. Although I disagree with most of AA's thesis, he is correct in noting that all of the NT was directed to or near Byzantium, and none of the NT was directed to or near Alexandria.

It stands to reason that the areas to which the NT writings were initially directed would more likely be the source of the most correct copies of those writings, and, with the presence of the original writings, destroying old and damaged copies would be more likely as the original was still available for copying. It was only in Alexandria that the old, damaged, and poorly copied apographs were kept in storage.

 

Yes, people who lack critical reasoning skills often find logical conclusions funny.

 

Once again you display your lack of critical reasoning skills. And tell a lie while doing it. That is a terrible shame.