Did God have a contract with Satan?

My argument is that Jesus did not have to be brutally treated by sinful men. As already stated the dying process had already started BEFORE any sinful men showed up to abuse and mistreat Jesus.

In the Garden of Gethsemane He was "already" sweating great drops of blood - already tasting death for every man - already standing as our substitute - already suffering - already his soul was "grieved to the point of death" - the process had begun. It was finished on the cross - but it would have eventually been finished in the Garden if left alone. He would have died there.

In Christ,

Bob

 

In other words "all that abuse" was nothing more than sinners sinning. It was not God "abusing Jesus".

It was Satan having HIS way - and sinflu mankind in cooperation with it. It was in place to TURN Christ away from being a willing sacrifice for mankind - but Christ chose to be our substitute IN SPITE of those abusive events.

The RC "Story" has been that God NEEDED those abusive events and that THEY are the means of our salvation the payment God demands.

But God NEVER requires MORE SINNING as the "payment" for sin!

 

There is no question but that Jesus was crucified and that he was literally cut and literally bled. God knew that from eternity past.

My argument is not that God did not know this or did not prepare for this. My point is that the second death is not "crucifixion by evil men". No one who is raised in the second resurrection to suffer God's penalty for sin in the lake of fire - will be tortured by evil men on a cross. That is not the "payment owed".

I also would not argue that anyone today is literally dipped in blood - Christ's blood --. In John 6 Christ shows the metaphore for flesh and blood without needing anyone to "bite him" literally. (Though Catholics seem to get pretty confused on that point - taking the side of the faithless disciples in John 6 who left thinking they were being told to bite Christ literally).

In Christ,

Bob