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Did God promise us a complete bible? Part 2

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Askjo, Sep 28, 2004.

  1. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Debby in Philly Quoted:
    "us" was not in any Hebrew text.
    No, it refers to the autographs. On other word, "oldest" and "best" refer to to famous 2 MSS disagreeing each other 3,000 times.

    Natters quoted:
    Which do you believe? Mid or Post or whatsoever?

    Pastor Bob quoted:
    Amen to that! [​IMG]

    RaptureReady quoted:
    If God did that, I would ask Him which is more accurate if His different spoken Words. I believe His true Words already in Heaven. Therefore He gave us His SAME words.

    David J quoted:
    Tell me, which Bible version for our English language is more accurate than the KJV?

    Natters quoted:
    I agree with DeaconLew.
    QUIT your silliness!

    DeacomLew quoted:
    [​IMG]

    David J quoted:
    Please solve these problems. If you can't do that, that means you do not know how to figure out. These verses are for simple math or reading.
     
  2. David J

    David J New Member

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    Tell me, which Bible version for our English language is more accurate than the KJV?

    The Geneva Bible was more accurate. It correctly translates pascha as passover and not Easter.

    The NKJV is more accurate. See Acts 5:30 and 2 Peter 1:1

    The NASB is more accurate. See the above..

    Your point is?

    Now if you care to address the question of "did God promise us a complete bible" then go right ahead. If you want to post the same KJVO myths over and over then I'm not wasting the bandwidth on you.

    Please solve these problems. If you can't do that, that means you do not know how to figure out. These verses are for simple math or reading.

    Your the KJVO therefore the burden of proof rest on your shoulders. I'm not a version onlyist therefore I can consult a variety of translations taking the advice from the following:

    “Yet for all that it cannot be dissembled...[that] it hath pleased God in his diuine prouidence, heere and there, to scatter wordes and sentences of that difficultie and doubtfulnesse, not in doctrinal points that concerne saluation (for in such it hath beene vouched that the Scriptures are plaine) but in matters of lesse moment, that fearfulnesse would better beseeme vs than confidence. . .and to resolue upon modestie....There be many words in Scripture, which be neuer found there but once. ..there be many rare names of certaine birds, beastes and precious stones, &c. concerning which the Hebrews themselves are so divided among themselves...so to determine of such things as the Spirit of God hath left (euen in thejudgement of the iudicious) questionable, can be no lesse than presumption. Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that varietie of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures; so diuersitie of signification and sense in the margine, where the text is not so cleare, must needes doe good, yea, is necessary, as we are perswaded....They that are wise, had rather haue their judgements at libertie in differences of readings, then to be captiuated to one, when it may be the other.”

    I'm still waiting on your to list the scriptures proving KJVOism that tells me that the KJV perfect and which KJV is perfect. End the bible version debate right here and right now! Post the scriptures from the KJV that says "KJV" and supports your onlyism. Things that are different are not the same.

    What? No scripture! Then KJVOism is a man made myth that is nothing but liberal modernism! What is a doctrine without scripture?

    Then again a false doctrine has no scripture to support it.

    Thank you,
     
  3. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    marking for notification purposes. [​IMG]

    AVL1984
     
  4. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    1.) The KJV is internally consistent.

    Is it? Was Jehoiachin eight or eighteen when he began to reign? (And I don't wanna hear any nonsense about a "regent".)

    Did David buy the land where the temple was later built from Araunah or Ornan? Did he pay this man with several names in gold or in silver?


    2.) The KJV is written in such a manner that even a child can understand it. It is written in a fifth grade reading level.

    Pure conjecture using the results of a slanted test. IN REALITY, how many 5th graders can read AND UNDERSTAND the KJV? (All of it, NOT just a few selected verses)

    3.) The KJV does not have missing verses.

    But does it have ADDED ones? You can't accurately answer, can you?

    4.) The KJV is responsible for a revival of holiness that no other bible version can claim.

    Actually, GOD is responsible. BUT...since MOST CULTS that are some sorta pseudo-Christianity USE THE KJV, does THAT make the KJV responsible for this proliferation of cults? The case is just as good for THAT premise as is the "revival" premise.

    KJVO=A DRY WELL
     
  5. natters

    natters New Member

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    Askjo asked me about the rapture "Which do you believe? Mid or Post or whatsoever?"

    Why does it matter to the topic of Bible versions?

    Askjo said about Westcott and Hort "I agree with DeaconLew."

    Based on what? We recently went over this, and the best you and michelle could come up with was that they never gave heretical statements because they were trying to hide the fact. So what do you base the accusation on, if you don't have any evidence?

    Askjo said to me about finding a KJV in a garbage can "QUIT your silliness!"

    It wasn't silliness. Perhaps you missed the point.
     
  6. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    In my KJV English-Greek Interlinear by Berry, it has the Greek literally stating in Gal 6.4:
    "Boasting" is the word; translating that as pride makes sense. This is the Greek of the Stephens text used for the KJV.
     
  7. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    This has nothing to do with the topic of the promise of a complete Bible. It is simply an attempt to re-open a thread which was closed after having gone off topic.
     
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