This issue was raised in the marriage thread but since it's really another issue, I thought I'd post Gina's question (from the marriage thread) here: 1. Was there such a law? Don't just speculate - let's get a real answer. 2. Did Jesus make a claim to have higher authority in such a way that it would be seen as a violation of that law? 3. Did Jesus break any civil law? We are not talking about the Pharisees' rules here or Sanhedrin rules, so please don't answer for that.