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Did Jesus "Change?"

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by skypair, Nov 6, 2008.

  1. Jim1999

    Jim1999 <img src =/Jim1999.jpg>

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    Unitarianism actually reared its ugly head the same time as the Reformation in a little country...the name won't come to me just now...,but it almost sidelined the Reformation. You may see elements of it in all countries where Christianity spread.

    Not all the Pilgrims that came to "America" were Christian and not all the Christians were of sound theology.

    Cheers,

    Jim
     
  2. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    It was "New England Theology." Charles Finney was one of the most popular of its proponents, especially when he was the president of Oberlin College.
     
  3. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    Perhaps what is needed is to look at what Dr Rogers and the scripture were saying about "all God as if He were no man; all man as if He were not God" ---- "all in all."

    Because I am saved, Christ is "all in all" (Col 3:11) to me. That is, I am all man (a separate person) as if I were not Christ, and I am all Christ as if I were not man (a separate Person). According to how I understand trinity, we are part of it!

    Think about it. Christ thought it not robbery to be equal with God because God dwelt in Him and was displayed in His life. This is the preincarnate Christ (Phil 2:6) Who then made Himself a servant.

    But what does 1Cor 15:28 say about when Christ has overcome His enemies and delivered His kingdom up to the Father (to the kingdom of God)? That "God may be all in all." That is, we will be all God as if we were not man; and all man as if we were not God" AND Christ Himself will again be equal with God -- all in all with God.

    We are like the earthly Christ and He was like us -- but in eternity, Christ will be like God and we will like Him -- God will be "all in all."

    Do you, Christian, "consider it robbery to be equal with" servant Christ? "Let this mind be in you," Paul says. Paul tells us in Rom 13:14, "Put on Christ and make not provision..." and in Gal 3:27 that "as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ." For us, Christ is all in all" now but God will be "all in all" in the kingdom of God.

    Does this help anyone or hurt my case?

    skypair
     
    #23 skypair, Nov 8, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Nov 8, 2008
  4. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    I would think to even consider such a concept would be blasphemous.
    But it sounds like something close to what Benny Hinn would say.
    Christ never ceased from being deity. He became (humbled himself) in the form of a man, even humbled himself to the obediece of death on the cross. He was God. He didn't have to do this. He could have called 12 legions of angels, the Scripures say. But out of his great love, He died for you; for me; for us all.

    Sounds like Mormonism to me. We will never be God or gods. If you use God singular then it sounds like Hinduism when we will all be absorbed into the one Great Brahma.
    There is only one God, entirely set apart from his creation (us) and he is a triune God--three persons in one God, as eloquently described in previous posts by some of the Confessions of Faith.
    Who of us is sinless? Who of us can claim to be "like Christ"? That is our goal. We ought to be Christ-like. "And he like us." Hardly! He was set apart from us. We are sinners. He is not. He was the just who died for the unjust.
    "Christ will be like God"
    Then what was he before?
    He always was God and always will be God. He never ceased from being God.
    It hurts it.
     
  5. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    You seem to be "nibbling around the edges" of what I said, DHK. "Dig in!" When Christ "made Himself lower...", was He still "equal with God?" When He was sin for us on the cross, was He equal with God or equal with man? If He was my "Substitute" and I am now His substitute, have I not become equal with Him and He was with me on the cross?

    Then why did Paul distinguish Him claiming equality with God pre-advent and equality with man in His advent? Isn't it true that, though He remained God, He did not have "equal" prerogatives with the Father but instead shared the prerogatives and responsibilites of man?

    I knew this was coming. You're right. But saying that only shows that you don't understand oneness and trinity existing simultaneously. Pre-advent, Christ was all God as if He were no Son; and all Son as if He were not God." When He was born, He was "all God as if He were not man; and..." IOW, God equal with man. When we are saved, the highest One we can be "equal to" is Christ "all in all" because while He was here, He did not reveal what "God all in all" would appear as (since He gave up His equality to become man/servant).

    And we don't know how He will appear again but we know that when He appears, we shall be like Him (God all in all).

    Yes, we are "sinless" IAW 1John 3:6, 9 and we strive to achieve "the perfect man, the measure of the stature of of the fulness of Christ." (Eph 4:13) We are "all Christ as if we were not man" when we abide not in sin. We are "all man as if we were not Christ" when we sin.

    But you see, Christ didn't have this "mix," did He. Because He was "all God as if...", His flesh had no sin -- it had the righteousness of God instead. But as "all man as if...", He did have godly prerogatives that we cannot achieve in this life.


    You should read Isa 53:10 -- "Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand." Does that not speak to you as if Christ Himself is "prolonging His days" on earth in us?

    I hope my above explanation clears this up. :praying:

    skypair
     
  6. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    No man will ever be equal with Christ.
    Even though Christ humbled Him Self and became a man temporarily in order to be the perfect man to be put to death unjustly for the sins of the whole world, He was still God. The whole process wasn't something He had to do but did because He chose to do it. His choice was open to Him at all times because even though He became a man He was still God and He never stopped being God even for a second.
    Christ became a man this is true but, He was a perfect man. That means there was no other like Him. He was perfect because He wasn't just a man but a God-man. The miracles Jesus performed no mere man could have ever done
    You seem to be leading up to His transfiguration as a point in time when He became a God-man. Though He was God the moment He was conceived.
    Believers already have the Spirit of God with in.
    Being born of God means we do not sin in the spirit but, sin still dwells in our flesh. When we do the things we wish we didn't it is no longer us that's doing it but the sin in our flesh.
    Christ living on the earth 2000 years ago was tempted as much as any man maybe even more. There was no "as if" in His life. He was the second Adam and like Adam He had as much choice to rebel as Adam ever had. He Didn't sin. He over came the temptation just as every man should over come his own temptations but, do not.
    Christ is at the right hand of the Father. It's His Holy Spirit that dwells within man. Yet He is still all just one God.... What a mystery eh???
    MB
     
  7. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Skypair

    You are totally confused about the nature of God. You are totally confused about the doctrine of the Trinity. You are totally confused about what occurred in the Incarnation. You are totally confused about the person and nature of the incarnate Son. You also appear to be totally confused about the nature of the redeemed.

    Your belief system regarding God and religion seems to be a mix between pantheism [Hinduism] and Mormonism, with a measure of Word of Faith heresy thrown in for good measure. That being said after reading a definition of Oneness doctrine [presented below] that heresy appears to fit your posts closer than anything else.

    Oneness Heresy

    Oneness theology denies the Trinity and teaches that God is a single person who was "manifested as Father in creation and as the Father of the Son, in the Son for our redemption, and as the Holy Spirit in our regeneration."* Another way of looking at it is that God revealed himself as Father in the Old Testament, as the Son in Jesus during Christ’s ministry on earth, and now as the Holy Spirit after Christ’s ascension.


    I would suggest that you purge your mind of all this heresy and then start reading the Bible beginning with Genesis and the Gospel of John as many new converts are advised.
     
  8. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    The Unitarian virus certainly was present in England – many General Baptists succumbed to the malady, virtually wiping them out as a religious force, and you may recall that Isaac Newton was an Arian, a fact that was kept secret throughout his life because he would have failed the religious test to hold his professorship.

    The Unitarians also were present early in New England, eventually becoming a dominant among a large section of the congregationalists, as Jim has noted.

    I also would point out that the current Unitarian Universalist "denomination" is neither Unitarian nor Universalist, having abandoned Christian dogma in favor of a vague theism that embraces traditions as disparate as Wicca and Buddhism.
     
  9. Benjamin

    Benjamin Well-Known Member
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    To my understanding, it is just as much a heresy to deny the humanity of Christ as it is to deny the Deity.
     
  10. blackbird

    blackbird Active Member

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    This is whats called Gnosticism which indeed is blasphemy and is a heresy
     
  11. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    So we won't be equal with Him when we receive our glorified bodies, MB? I believe we will be EXACTLY like Him. Scripture says so. "We know not yet what we shall be, but when He appears, we KNOW that we shall be like Him." Just what aspects do you claim will be different?

    The fact of the matter is that because our souls are redeemed and seated in heavenly places with Him, we are already somewhat like Him. Our bodies are already "terrestrially glorified" by His indwelling Spirit.

    You're nibbling around the edges of the issue again, MB. He was still God but He was not the Father. And furthermore, His body was not redeemed yet either.

    So let's get the pattern here whereby we are like Christ today. We are mere men (or women). We freely give our lives to God at conversion (which is why I am not a Calvinist). We receive a new body indwelt by the Spirit as Jesus' was. We are sent forth to do His works though our bodies and our spirits are not yet fully redeemed. As 1John says, we are "equal" to Christ whenever the Spirit is working out through us in righteousness.

    I see 2 problems here: 1) Jesus said we would do GREATER works that He. 2) No, I am not leading up to the transfiguration as the point where He became God-man.

    Technically incorrect. Our souls (consciences) no longer sins -- give us bad information (this is the aspect 1John speaks of when he says we have no sin). The soul is indwelt by the Spirit and sheds perfect light on whether what we do is wrong or right.

    Our spirits (mind, emotions, and wills) do still sin. We still think wrong, even evil, thoughts. But see, our spirits are being progressively redeemed whereas Jesus was fully redeemed from evil or wrong thoughts, motives, and emotions. That is how 1John can simultaneously say that if we say we have no sin, we are liars. We have the ability not to sin IF we live in the light as He was in the light (of the same Spirit that was in Him -- "you have the mind of Christ").

    The only thing that wasn't redeemed in Christ was His body. It was subject to the curse as ours are. BUT His and ours had/have "terrestrial glory." That is, God lived in Him and lives in us. So even in body we are somewhat like Jesus was.

    It's very exciting when it is more fully understood! And since we seem to be able to discuss it without animosity, I'll be praying that we can reach other conclusions and make the right applications as we interact.

    skypair
     
  12. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    Either that or you are confused about what I believe about them. :laugh:

    That would be easy because a) I'm a guy and guys don't communicate well and b) I consider myself to have "elaborated" on some of the specifics of the doctrine, the incarnation and Person of Christ, and how that relates to us and our salvation.

    However, I think when you do understand it, my "model" is both scriptural and simple and has ALL to do with the true meaning of the Trinity of God.

    And first let it be said that I derived NONE of my doctrine from the "isms" you mentioned. Second, if there is any intersection, it only proves that God has given even the heathen some knowledge of Himself, "even His eternal power and godhead" (which we, indeed, know from Rom 1:19-20).

    Right from the outset, you know you are making a false accusation because I have NEVER denied the Trinity of God! What you really need to do is consider more closely 1) whether God was ever or will ever not be a Trinity and 2) what purpose His being in Trinity now is serving. Simply put, I maintain that the 3 Persons of God correspond to the 3 aspects of our nature (soul. spirit, body) and of our salvation (justification, sanctification, and glorification). I further maintain that the Persons of the Trinity keep their respective persona's throughout this creation (until the MK is ended, at least) which means that God is supratemporal, the Spirit is atemporal, and Christ is temporal (which assertions answer to the issues of predestination vs open theism and everything in between!).

    You know what? I have ALWAYS thought it was a waste for a brand new Christian to start reading through the Bible from Genesis! Can you think of anything less applicable to his/her new life than the OT!?

    skypair
     
  13. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    1Jn 3:2
    Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.
    "Like" means similar, it doesn't mean an absolute copy. It doesn't mean we will also be gods as He is God.
    While I will admit that it's my desire to be like Him I for one haven't arrived there yet. We could say we are like Him in the fact that we breathe or that we both have a human form. Yet "like" is a simile not a duplicate.

    Wrong I never nibble at nonsense. Christ didn't need to be redeemed and to make such a claim is heresy plain and simple. Seems you have fallen off the deep end of your own intellectual attitude here. I now believe you're just arguing for the sake of argument. IOW's you have no argument so you've dreamed this one up.
    Now you're writting your own gospel.
    That's works, not miracles.
    Scripture please?
    You're talking nonsense. Jesus Christ was never redeemed because he had nothing to be redeemed from. He never once ever commited sin. Not only that He wasn't born in sin. Which is why He is referred to as the second Adam. His maternal Father is the Spirit of God.
    What did Christ do that He needed redeeming from?
    I'll tell you right up front before you go any futher. Don't waste your breath. You'll never convince me of this heresy.
    MB
     
  14. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Let's try this again.
    When the second person of the trinity (the Word), "made himself lower" or volitionally submitted Himself to the first person of the trinity, it was His choice to do so. He was not forced into it. God cannot be forced to do anything. God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit are co-equal throughout all eternity. They were when Christ was on earth, and they are now.
    Christ said: I am come to do thy will.
    I always do the will of my Father.
    --He voluntarily, as a man, submitted Himself to the first person of the trinity, while He (the Word) maintained His deity, being the Second person of the trinity--the perfect man; the only God--the God-man.
    As a man he submitted himself; as God he was still the Creator. As God there was no change.

    "Was he equal with God or equal with man?
    --He is God. That is the obvious answer. Man doesn't even begin to compare. Christ is God within a fleshly temple.

    John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

    1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

    God was on earth dwelling in an earthly temple. We are not gods. We don't come close to being equal with Christ. In Him did all the fulness of the Godhead dwell.
    From the above Scripture Paul never distinguished Him claiming equality with God. He was God in the flesh, Paul said. That is clear enough for me. In his humanity he submitted himself to the Father, but only in his humanity. Yet that was volitional. He was still God. Remember he could have called 12 legions (72,000) angels at anytime to stop it all. He was God (and still is).
    He did have "equal prerogatives. Understand John 3:13

    John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
    --He speaks of him omniscience to Nicodemus. While on earth he tells him that he is in heaven. His miracles attested of his omnipotence. That is the reason that Nicodemus came to him. "No man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with Him."
    Quite frankly, it is my opinion that you are basing your entire theology on a misinterpretation of a very difficult verse (1Cor.15:28). Many scholars have varied and different opinions of the meaning of that verse. Remember the context--he is giving evidences of the resurrection.

    Now back to your post. Christ was all God, and the Son at the same time. It could be no other way. He is the Word, the second person of the trinity, and always has been.

    1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
    --If it causes less confusion in your mind to refer to the second person as the Word, then so be it. I think it is more accurate a term anyway. Regardless, He is and always has been the second person of triune Godhead.
    While Christ was here it was the only way that He could reveal what God was like--the only way!

    John 14:9-11 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
    10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
    11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.

    Only Christ could fully reveal God to the world.
    Like him only in some ways. Like him does not mean we will be divine in no sense of the word
    No we are not sinless. That is a misinterpretation of that verse. 1John 1:8,10 says that when you claim sinlessness you do not know the truth, you are a liar, and the word is not in you. That is quite a condemnation.
    The "perfect" (OE for "complete) man does not speak of sinlessness. It speaks of maturity, or completion in the sense of showing the fruit of the Spirit in one's life.
    There are none of us who continue from day to day without sin. We fail. We sin. And 1John 1:9 commands us to confess and ask forgiveness. 1John 2:1 tells us that we WILL sin.
    Christ didn't have to have this mix, you say.
    No, and Christ didn't have to die for our sins either. He is God. He is our Creator. He is the second person of the triune Godhead. He holds all power in His hand. He spoke all things into existence.
    Christ did not have "perogatives." He is God. He has "need of nothing" the Bible states. We are the creatures; He is the Creator. It will always remain that way. When He was on this earth his body was like ours--made of flesh, bones, blood, water, atoms, molecules, matter, etc. He was human--totally human. Yet, at the same time He was totally God. He never left His deity behind, not for one nanosecond.
    The correct term is that he had no "sin nature."
     
  15. Benjamin

    Benjamin Well-Known Member
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    Got to run to church, but what I stated is Chalcedon compliant, there is another tread on this that I don't have time to dig up right now. Quickly, from my study notes:

    "The Chalcedon Council concluded that Christ is One Person in two natures; the difference of the Natures being in no way abolished because of the union, but rather the perfection of each being preserved, and both concurring into one Person and one Hypostasis.
    Thus the doctrine of one Person in two Natures became the middle way along which the Church was in future to walk."
     
  16. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Please notice the very strong similarities between skypair's doctrine and the Oneness Doctrine which is heretical. Also if the Second Person and the Third Person of the Triune Godhead did not exist at one time and will cease to exist at some time in the future, as skypair insists, then they are not God which is directly contrary to Christian Doctrine and is a gross heresy
     
  17. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Some of [b[]skypair's[/b] trash talk sounds a little like the Word of Faith Heresy.
     
  18. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    Oh No you don't mean!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Benny Hinn?
    I thought it resembled the late Joseph Smith's views
    MB
     
  19. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Sounds like something - but not Scripture.
     
  20. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Some of that also!
     
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