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Did Jesus "empty' Himself Of Divinity While Upon the Earth?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JesusFan, Jul 23, 2011.

  1. glfredrick

    glfredrick New Member

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    Though you have cloaked your response in many words, it still seems to me that you are suggesting that Jesus Christ emptied Himself of His divinity until after the Resurrection.

    I reject that idea and find it heretical, but I'm not trying to blast you out of the water because you may simply be misinformed.

    If, for instance, Christ suffered on the cross as just a man, how was it that He could say, "It is finished" and mean by that, that atonement was made for the sins of people? Also, how was it that Christ had the ability to see the future, to do miracles without consulting the Father, and to know the thoughts of those who persecuted Him? All of these and more require that He retain His divine nature, albeit setting aside some of the divine attributes that would have hindered His ministry as Jesus, born of a woman.

    The perfection of His attributes and balance as the perfect God/man are astounding when contemplated, as is His radical humility, which God sets before us as an example. The atonement is not an example. Christ's humility and willingness to never take His eyes off of the Father are.
     
  2. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    If you have a bottle of wine and you empty it can it still have one drop of wine in it and literally be empty? Can one be a little pregnant?

    But [there is] a spirit in man: and the inspiration of the Almighty giveth them understanding. For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? Job 32:8 1 Cor.2:11 1st part. Was this spirit part of the breath of life God breathed into Adam that made him a living soul? And when one dies is this not the same spirit as this, Eccl, 12:7 and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it? This spirit of man that is in him, is it passed from father to children via the mother through conception?
    The spirit of man that is in him and returns to God who gave it when he dies.

    The Word that became flesh, Jesus was not conceived by a human father yet through Mary he was the son of David and Adam was the figure of him.
    He the Word that became flesh was conceived of the Holy Spirit, Spirit the God, gave him life through Mary in the flesh, he came by water and blood at the same time for she was a virgin. even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God. last part 1 Cor. 2:11 This was the Spirit in him from birth. The only begotten of the Father. Christians today are begotten of the Father God by the Holy Spirit but it comes to them from the Father God through the Son, the firstborn from the dead not through natural birth.

    This was God in the flesh but he had emptied himself and he died.

    `Father, to Thy hands I commit my spirit;' and these things having said, he breathed forth the spirit.

    Heretical or the word of God?
     
    #22 percho, Jul 27, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 27, 2011
  3. blackbird

    blackbird Active Member

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    Jesus did NOT "lay aside" His divinity-----early on in John's gospel John says "And we beheld His glory"-----the word "glory" is DOXA----the very personhood and presense of God Himself

    Jesus said to His disciples---If you've seen ME---you've seen the Father

    God in His fullness died upon the cross---anything less than God in His fullness would not suffice God in His fullness

    The laying aside of divinity is a false doctrine that arises from the "Name it Claim It----Blab it Grab it" false religion you see so much on tv
     
  4. freeatlast

    freeatlast New Member

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    For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.
    He was born God and Saviour.
     
  5. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    and according to the custom of Paul, he went in unto them, and for three sabbaths he was reasoning with them from the Writings, opening and alleging, `That the Christ it behoved (HAD) to suffer, and to rise again out of the dead, and that this is the Christ -- Jesus whom I proclaim to you.'

    It took a little more than his just being born in Bethlehem.

    He, Jesus, the Word that became flesh was the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. Would the eternal living God have to empty himself of something in order to be slain? Yes he would and yes he did.

    Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:

    How was the kingdom prepared for them? By the Lamb being slain and given life again.

    That which is born of the flesh is flesh. That includes. And every spirit that confesses not that (the) Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that [spirit] of antichrist, This is he that came by water and blood, [even] Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood.

    That which is born of the Spirit is Spirit. Howbeit that [was] not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. the firstborn from the dead; that in all he might have the preeminence. And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ;

    We are heirs not yet inheritors, Jesus, the Word that became flesh has already inherited which even carried with it a name above all names. as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they. Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.

    for the earnest looking out of the creation doth expect the revelation of the sons of God; `Thou mayest not wonder that I said to thee, It behoveth you to be born from above; Young's Literal Translation
     
  6. freeatlast

    freeatlast New Member

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    You don't get it. :confused:
     
  7. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    I may not get it.

    I did answer the OP. I believe the word shows he emptied himself of glory and showed a lot of scripture showing what I believe the word of God teaches that glory to be.

    What do you think Jesus meant in his prayer to the Father in John 17:5?

    What does joint heir mean?

    Unless he had not emptied himself of something why on God's green earth or in heaven or anywhere would the Christ have to inherit anything for he made all that is made?

    When it says that the promises were made to Abraham and his one seed the Christ, why would anything need to be promised to the Christ? Is it because he came in the flesh?

    Just what does it mean to you that by inheritance he obtained? Just when did he inherit what was inherited? Was it the name that he was the Son of God? Was it not on this day, in thou art my son this day have I begotten you, when he inherited it? If not then when?

    And please use as much scripture as I used in your answers if they disagree with me.

    Thanks in advance.
     
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