Did the marginal note of one translation become the text of another and did the text of two translations become the marginal note of another? In the pre-1611 English Bibles and the 1611 KJV, the marginal note of one Bible seems to have become the text of another while the text of two of them seems to have become the marginal note of the other. Here is the information for the above statement that relates to the question for this thread: Deut. 3:17 under the springs at Pisgah eastward (1560 Geneva Bible) 1560 Geneva marginal note: "Or at Ashdoth-Pisgah." under the springs of the hill eastward (1568 Bishops' Bible) under Ashdoth-Pisgah eastward (1611 KJV) 1611 marginal note: "Or under the springs of Pisgah, or the hill."