Did Mary and Joseph Have other Children?

Matthew used the Greek preposition "ews"
I quoted from the most thorough Greek Lexicon possibly available on the subject: Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon, which gave the meaning of this particular word in the exact context of Mat.1:25. Did you even pay attention to the post. The word is not unto, but until. I also posted half a dozen different translations for you each showing that the translation was until or "up to the time of." Did you read that post, or neglect it also? Do you just glance over everything I write and ignore it, not giving any effort whatsoever to refute it. That is what it seems like. There is a one-to-one correspondence translation in this case, and you are just ignoring the evidence that I have provided. Go back and read the evidence for yourself. Don't just keep on denying what you cannot refute. Every person reading this thread can easily see right through that.
DHK

 

Hi music4Him,

It's nice to see a fellow Texan on the board!

I grew up just north of San Antonio in the small town of Boerne (pronounced "Bernie") & graduated from Texas A&M University. I'm currently applying for a campus ministry position at the Catholic student center there: http://www.aggiecatholic.org


You asked, "I was told that this was written in the greek now you are saying it was hebrew words to greek? Yes or No?"

By providing the evidence that the translators of the Septuagint translated the relation of "cousin" in the Hebrew Old Testament as adelphos in the Greek demonstrates that for Greek speaking Jews, adelphos (which etymologically means "from the same womb") was used just as much for your cousin as it was for your brother.

This means that in First Century Palestine, a Jew would readily refer to his cousin as adelphos, even though there is a Greek word that means "cousin" specifically, which is anepsios. Because this is so, whenever you see the term adelphos (singular) or adelphoi (plural), it would be a mistake to exclude the possibility that one is referring to a cousin.

The Scriptures were written in a particular culture that used language in a certain way. If we are to discover the intention of the human author (which is inseparable from the intention of the divine author, since the divine author - God - writes by means of humans as instruments), we must ascertain their ways of speaking and writing.

You also asked, "Matthew is the gospel written by a Jew to Jews about a Jew. So what language would he write it in? Hebrew or Greek?"

Papias (in Eusebius' Ecclesiastical History), Jerome, and others report that Matthew originally penned his Gospel in Hebrew and that it was subsequently translated into Greek.

It is very likely - as the historians of the Early Church attest was so - that Matthew's Gospel was originally authored in Hebrew (we call this the autograph) and that the only extant manuscripts we have available in our hands today are Greek translations of the original Hebrew.

 

Music4Him, Carson replied to you with the following:

"You asked, "I was told that this was written in the greek now you are saying it was hebrew words to greek? Yes or No?"

By providing the evidence that the translators of the Septuagint translated the relation of "cousin" in the Hebrew Old Testament as adelphos in the Greek demonstrates that for Greek speaking Jews, adelphos (which etymologically means "from the same womb") was used just as much for your cousin as it was for your brother.

This means that in First Century Palestine, a Jew would readily refer to his cousin as adelphos, even though there is a Greek word that means "cousin" specifically, which is anepsios. Because this is so, whenever you see the term adelphos (singular) or adelphoi (plural), it would be a mistake to exclude the possibility that one is referring to a cousin."

One little tid-bit of info he forgot to mention is that the Holy Spirit could have easily chosen to use the Greek term for "cousin" if He so desired, but He didn't. The term the Holy Spirit did inspire the biblical writers to use was "adelphos" - a term which is translated "brother(s)" some 346 times in the KJV of the NT. I can't say I'm surprised that he left that out though - he still hasn't replied to my use of this argument from page 21. For an exegetically sound treatment of this topic, please see my post on page 21 or any of the postings by DHK.

 

"Did you read that post, or neglect it also? "

Neglect? No not neglect. I know that to expect from you so no I didn't waste my time reading it all as I usually don't with your posts. I know the arguements that you use and they simply don't hold water as has been proven over and over quite well by Carson and Grant. Sorry if that hurts your pride.

Blessings

 

It doesn't hurt my pride at all Thessalonian. In fact it makes me feel sorry for you, since you believe in a doctrine you cannot defend; a doctrine that is totally unbiblical; one that you cannot find a shred of evidence for in the Bible; and last of all, everyone reading this thread can see by your post above that you have no argument, no defence, no evidence at all to present in favor of the "perpetual virginity of Mary" doctrine. You have written your own obituary. The case is now closed.
DHK