And Jhesus answeride, and seide to hym, It is writun, Thou schalt worschipe thi Lord God, and to hym aloone thou schalt serue. (1395 Wycliffe) Iesus answered him & sayde: hence from me Sathan. For it is written: Thou shalt honour the Lorde thy God and him only serve. (1530 Tyndale) Iesus answered him, and sayde: Auoyde fro me thou Satan. It is wrytten: Thou shalt worshippe the LORDE thy God, and him onely shalt thou serue. (1535 Coverdale) Iesus answered him and sayde. Hence from me Sathan. For it is writte: Thou shall honoure the Lord thy God and him onlye serue. (1549 Matthews) Jesus answered him and sayde: Hence frome me Sata. For it is wrytten: thou shalt honour the Lorde thy God and him onely serue. (1539 Taverner) And Iesus answered hym, saying: It is written man shall not lyue by breed only, but by euery worde of God. (1540 Great) But Iesus answered him, and saide, Hence from mee, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lorde thy God, and him alone thou shalt serue. (1583 Geneva) Iesus aunswered, & sayde vnto hym, Hence from me Satan: For it is writte, Thou shalt worship the Lorde thy God, and hym only shalt thou serue. (1568 Bishops') And Iesvs answering said to him, It is written, Thou shalt adore the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serue. (1610 Douai-Rheims) And Iesus answered and said vnto him, Get thee behinde me, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him onely shalt thou serue. (1611 AV) Should English readers have been concerned that Tyndale didn't agree with Wycliffe? Should Christians in England have been outraged that Coverdale edited his later work (on the Great Bible) differently from his earlier translation? Should 17th century believers have been confused by the proliferation of Bible versions? Ought the king's revisers changed the well established "hence"?