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Do the MV's Violate the Fundamentals/Doctrines of the faith?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by AVL1984, Sep 20, 2004.

  1. James_Newman

    James_Newman New Member

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    I'm not assuming anything brother, I'm asking. Is hell and the lake of fire the same place? Whether or not hades and gehenna are 2 separate compartments in the underworld is beside the point. Are EITHER of these places the same as the lake of fire?
     
  2. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    If you want to know, James, start your own thread asking the question.

    AVL1984
     
  3. James_Newman

    James_Newman New Member

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    So exactly what fundamentals is it that you believe the MVs have safeguarded so well? You obviously don't want to discuss what is an obvious difference between the KJV and all the MV's. Thats either because you don't really care to know the answer to your own question, or you can't answer mine. Was this thread just started to attack Michelle because the last thread you were attacking her in was closed? You invited anyone to discuss. Please be sure to exclude me in your open invitations if I'm not welcome [​IMG]
     
  4. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    No, you're trying to hijack a thread, which is the typical response from a KJVO. The questions have already been asked. If you want to start your own threads, feel free to do so. Your allegations against me are without foundation, but what else would I expect from you?

    AVL1984
     
  5. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Yes, they did. In the New Testament the doctrine of Jesus Christ including His name is corrupted by MVs around 200 times.
     
  6. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Please list a few to back up your claim. Also, do you believe it's okay for the KJV to "corrupt" scripture by adding the name of God to scripture?
     
  7. natters

    natters New Member

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    Askjo said "Yes, they did. In the New Testament the doctrine of Jesus Christ including His name is corrupted by MVs around 200 times."

    False witness.
     
  8. Anti-Alexandrian

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    "Do the MV's Violate the Fundamentals/Doctrines of the faith?" Hmmm,let's see:

    1.The Arian heresy in John 1:18.

    2.Knocking the Lord out of His incarnation in 1Tim 3:16(1st John 5:4).

    3.Bringing into doubt the sinlessness of the Lord Jesus Christ;Matt 5:22.

    4.Making a servant out of The Lord Jesus in Acts 4:27.

    Nah!!!! No doctrines affected here.
     
  9. natters

    natters New Member

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    AA said "1.The Arian heresy in John 1:18."

    Saying Christ is "God" is Arian heresy??? You have that backwards.

    AA said "2.Knocking the Lord out of His incarnation in 1Tim 3:16(1st John 5:4)."

    Pronouns have antecedants. "God" is mentioned in the previous verse.

    AA said "3.Bringing into doubt the sinlessness of the Lord Jesus Christ;Matt 5:22."

    Does the exact same verse bring into doubt the sinlessness of God (see Luke 12:20)? Does the immediately prior verse bring into doubt the sinlessness of God (see Acts 5:1-10)?

    AA said "4.Making a servant out of The Lord Jesus in Acts 4:27."

    See Phil 2:7 KJV.

    Strike 4. You're really out.
     
  10. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Oldest manuscripts read: "God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known." Younger manuscripts read "... God the One and only begotten Son, who is at the Father's side, has made him known."
    Looks like later manuscripts "added" text. in this verse. In either passage, though, there is no doctrine that is changed.

    Earliest manuscripts read "He appeared in body", while later manuscripts read "God appeared in the flesh" (note that "God" appears prior to this verse). Again, later manuscripts appear to have altered the texts to clarify the context. In either reading, however, there is no doctrine that is changed.

    Earliest manuscripts read "anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment", while later manuscripts read "angry at his brother without cause".
    In either reading, this verse does not speak to the sinlessness of Christ whatsoever.

    The Greek word here is "pais", which can mean either servant, or child. However, when referring to a child, it's referring to a young person who serves adults, like a houseboy or handmaiden. It is NOT referring to a youngster as we in English understand it. The KJV translated the word "child", but, the context in the full verse supports the word as meaning "servant".
     
  11. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    False witness? That means YOU!

    Matthew 8:29 has "Jesus." MVs omitted His name.

    Manuscript evidence shows that massive mss had "Jesus" on Matthew 8:29.
     
  12. Trotter

    Trotter <img src =/6412.jpg>

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    Askjo,

    How many "Sons of God" are there in the passage? What part of that confuses you?

    In Christ,
    Trotter
     
  13. natters

    natters New Member

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    Askjo said "False witness? That means YOU!"

    No it doesn't. Where did I make a false claim?

    Askjo said "Matthew 8:29 has "Jesus." MVs omitted His name."

    That's 1. Only 199 more to list to prove you are not a false witness.

    While your at it, you might want to compare Acts 24:24, Romans 8:34, Gal 5:24, Eph 3:6, Col 4:12, Rom 8:11, Matt 16:1, John 19:17, Acts 9:22, Heb 7:24, etc., etc., etc.
     
  14. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    I agree with A-A.

    The EARLIEST Church father Ignatius in 1st Century: He quoted,
     
  15. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    Yes, they did. In the New Testament the doctrine of Jesus Christ including His name is corrupted by MVs around 200 times. </font>[/QUOTE]I was waiting to see some follow up with at least a few examples. Could you give us some?
     
  16. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    I have list of 200, but I gave you one verse that is enough.
    Add Jesus?
     
  17. natters

    natters New Member

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    Askjo said "I have list of 200, but I gave you one verse that is enough."

    Yes, and I have a list too. Post some more from yours, I'll post some more from mine.

    Askjo said "Add Jesus?"

    No, those are some verses (of a larger list I have) in the New Testament where the doctrine of Jesus Christ including His name is corrupted by the KJV. ;)
     
  18. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Tell me about that. Go ahead! I want to see that.
     
  19. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    How does this change a doctrine? The doctrine that Jesus is the Son of God is clearly taught in the MVs and this passage shows that it is Jesus who is the Son of God. I'll even use the NLT:

    How does this make one think Jesus is not the Son of God? It is clear the demoniacs were talking to Jesus when the demons said "Son of God." It is a powerful account of his power over demons.
     
  20. russell55

    russell55 New Member

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    But how does this violate a fundamental truth or doctrine of the faith? It's still obvious, even in all the mv's, that it is Jesus the demon possessed men are referring to.

    The two (mv's and KJV) are equally strong doctrinewise in this verse. They don't use exactly the same words, but they say exactly the same thing.
     
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