Do We Have Differeing Standards regarding Divorce IF laity/Clergy?

Ok I don't have any illusions of changing someones opinion....I'm not arguing my point either....but you really haven't addressed MY issues in post #17...
Peace

 

There are some things that you come out of. Being an alcoholic is something you can stop being. Being a divorced person is not something you can stop being.

You can't "recover" into a good marriage. You already failed at your last one. The only way to "recover" from a divorce is to get back together with your wife. (I do believe there are biblical reasons for divorce. I'm not talking about those here.)

If a man divorces his wife unbiblically, the only recourse is to get back together. They may need to do some paper work for the government, but in God's eyes they are not divorced.

 

Brother, again I don't have any illusions of changing ones opinion, but if you are comparing the union [2 are 1 flesh] and vows made before God --the dissolution of it, and then remarrying, and someone who had a drinking problem, and by Christ overcoming it, then I don't have an argument....I don't see how that [a recovered alcoholic] would be a stumblingblock to someone who is having marriage problems or having problems with the temptation of alcohol [so I don't get your analogy]--but I do see how a divorced "Pastor" could be a stumblingblock to any young couple having marital problems....
Peace

 

Salty, what you aren't understanding is that someone who has turned from the sin of alcoholism has gained a victory. Someone in an unbiblical divorce is never in a state of victory, no matter how "great" their next marriage is.

 

God's plan is that marriage is forever. He does allow for divorce in certain cases. In those cases, the divorce is biblical. Of course you know this already, so what's the question?

 

So you see divorce if not biblical as a stumbling block. But what of the christian man who wants to serve as pastor and had several pre-marital partners? As a christian young man who failed.
He is still married to those partners according to Paul, 1 Corinthians 6:16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
17 But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.
18 Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.

So now we need to exclude that man from being Pastor he is still married to those women in God's eyes according to your view. He became one flesh with that woman when they came together. Many don't want to see it that way, but that union never goes away, that first partner is always with them and they are one flesh.
When we look at scripture and make a call look at all scripture. The 1 Corinthians passage is clear they became one flesh and no divorce took place.
We need to look at Matthew 5:27 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Has the Pastor commited adultry in His heart for if he looks upon her he has already commited adultry so no we need to exclude that man too.

We can carry things to an extreme on everything. Scripture that gives the qualification never says the pastor should not be divorced, it says a "one woman man" dedicated to one woman as a pastor. Should he not be divorced yes of course, noone should be divorced. God hates divorce, but because of the hardness of man's heart God allowed Moses to make a law for it. Divorce is common in our nation, I have seen men who had been divorced and remarried before salvation be told they weren't qualified to pastor because of the divorce. But Christ forgives every sin, He paid for each sin and that includes adultry, it's people that can't forgive and must pass judgement on others.
The divorced pastor has a very hard time getting past the divorce and he can be seen as a hypocrite if he preaches against it but that doesn't mean he must resign if his wife walks away.
We need to look at 1 Corinthians 7:15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
If his wife is an unbeliever and she departs is He not under bondage in that case. They are free of that unequal bond. So many different situations to just make one call on a divorced man. We must take each case individually.

 

So then you would agree we need to exclude all men from the pastorate who had pre-martial relationships, because they according to scripture are on flesh with that woman too?

1 Corinthians 6:16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
17 But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.
18 Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.

I don't see it that way but if you hold that a pastor that is divorced is still married in God's sight then you must also exclude the chrisitan man who failed in his pre-marital days too.

 

I agree but it seems that these scriptures are ignored. In today's world there would be a lot of men who would be disqualified because of one night of going all the way with his high school sweetheart. You know? She was the one but she broke up with him three weeks later.

 

Hello revmwc, yes I see a divorced "Pastor" as a stumblingblock.....I also see the office of pastor as a calling, not a desire of some man.....I know the Scripture says: 1 Timothy 3:1 This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work.
I will give JFB's explanation of desire here: desire--literally, "stretch one's self forward to grasp"; "aim at": a distinct Greek verb from that for "desireth." This is utterly distinct from ambitious desires after office in the Church. (Jas 3:1). [my note: not all agree with this!]

So I believe it is a calling from God, and then there are qualifications, which means one can be disqualified....I believe His calling is without repentance, so there is always work to do [preaching, teaching, counseling, evangelism]

As far as your point about fornication, I understand your point but, there is a difference....you can be a former philanderer, but you can't be a former divorcee....and, I can do you one better:
1 Timothy 3:2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

Blameless? By the letter of the law, without a calling, none are qualified

It would seem difficult to understand how a man who is supposed to have his house in order so he can keep the Church in order would be married to an unbeliever in the first place? Unless he wants his church full of unbelievers?

Peace

 

In God's eyes what constitutes a marriage? Paul gave that answer didn't he?
We see Rebekah comin to Issac and going into the tent and he knew her and she was his wife. No ceremony occured, but the marriage in God's eyes occured.

There are many unsaved pastors serving in pulpits, so it is not hard for me to see a pastor married to an unsaved woman that claims salvation. Can anyone look on thier heart and know for sure a person is saved or not. An ynbeliever can produce what looks like fruit and is not.

 

Define Biblical grounds.
Paul was making the point if a man go to a harlot he becomes one flesh with her. One flesh constitutes a marriage.

So now lets get down to the word one as seen in the greek. Mia is used meaning only one, or someone. So is the divorced man that has remarried the husband of only one wife? In the eyes of the law yes. In the eyes of God though? Now is the man who had pre-marital relations married to that woman, in the eyes of the law no in God's eyes we can say yes. Therefore there is no difference. So how do we define the husband of only one?

 

Surely you know better than that

 

Not what scripture says:
1 Corinthians 6:16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
17 But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.
18 Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.

Verse 16 says that a man and harlot become one flesh and they have not entered into a marriage covenant relationship.

 

This discourse is not going to bear any fruit so I'll leave it with what I've already said, except, I don't think Paul was giving us what "constitutes a marriage" in Corinthians [he did in Ephesians however]--I think he was trying to tell a carnal church they shouldn't be indulging in carnality.....I think God gave us the institution of marriage in
Genesis: Genesis 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

and Paul again in NT: Ephesians 5:31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

So like you said, a man shall leave his father and mother and cleave unto his harlot with a one night stand and she shall be his wife.....actually, it didn't say that did it? [I can't help myself sorry ]---marriage, adultery, fornication, divorce, all different issues.

You shall believe as you shall and I shall believe as I do, and we'll both be happy! [I hope you are, I know I am]
God bless