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Featured Do you believe in the scriptures being Infallable?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Yeshua1, Sep 4, 2016.

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  1. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    It is a variant introduced into the text by Erasmus.

    Well, Jordan, I would have a lot more respect for your opinions if you would learn something about the English language. "Your" is a possessive pronoun. "You're" is a contraction for "you are." What you meant to say was "You're contradicting yourself."

    But, of course, I am not. There is a huge existential gulf between a textual variant and an error of fact. I have been trying to explain that to you but your mind has been so closed to the truth by your KJVO heresy that you reject the truth in favor of your KJVO error. :(

    The dichotomy exists only in the fevered imagining of your own mind.
     
    #61 TCassidy, Sep 6, 2016
  2. Bluefalcon

    Bluefalcon Member

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    Doc, you need a Greek refresher after butchering this one. ευδοκια is genitive? LOL...not. Add a sigma and it _could_ be, or it could be an accusative plural (only context can tell).


     
    #62 Bluefalcon, Sep 6, 2016
  3. Bluefalcon

    Bluefalcon Member

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    LOL man, you sound like Steven Avery.
     
    #63 Bluefalcon, Sep 6, 2016
  4. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Yes. The abbreviation for Θεοσ or Θεου was Θς with a superscript line (called a macron) (¯) over the ς (which I can't seem to figure out how to get it to show up on the screen with the sigma final under it).

    As there was a fold or crease in the parchment of Vaticanus it was thought the macron and cross mark in the Theta were just dirt in the crease so they read Ος - he - instead of Θς - God. :)
     
    #64 TCassidy, Sep 6, 2016
  5. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    Sorry, Doc. I just couldn't help myself.
     
    #65 rsr, Sep 6, 2016
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  6. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Duh! What I need is stronger reading glasses. (I am slowly going blind due to my MS).

    You are correct. Nominative, Singular, Feminine.

    Thanks for the correction. :)
     
    #66 TCassidy, Sep 6, 2016
  7. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Yes, I vaguely remember that point. The rebuttal to Burgon's light through the other side claim was that he was seeing superfluous ink from the reverse page as the light shown through it. Hmm. I didn't understand this one.

    Wasn't the mss material parchment and is this material opaque or translucent?


    HankD
     
    #67 HankD, Sep 6, 2016
    Last edited: Sep 6, 2016
  8. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    I am asking this the third time...

    What KJV verses do you find to be in error Jordan?

    This reeks of a KJVO witch hunt...
     
    #68 SovereignGrace, Sep 6, 2016
  9. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    How about the "Easter-pascha" controversy?

    Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

    HankD
     
    #69 HankD, Sep 6, 2016
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  10. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    English (along with German) is one of the few languages which distinguishes between "easter" and "passover." The Spanish word for Easter is Pascua; French: Pâques; Portuguese: Páscoa; Dutch: Pasen; Italian: Pasqua. In fact, the only European language that I know of which does make a distinction (other than English, of course) is German which translates Easter as Ostern and Passover as Passah. I suspect the similarity is due to English being a member of the Germanic Cognate Language group.

    "Easter" in 1611 had a much broader meaning than it does today. In 1611 the meaning of the word included, according to the Oxford English dictionary, "The Jewish Passover." That meaning has become archaic, but it would be incorrect, in my opinion, to say that "easter" was an error in 1611.

    There are many, many other instances in the NT of the same Greek word being translated "passover" in the KJV. But each of those was a reference to the passover for critical reasons whereas the reference to Easter may have been because the intent was to establish the time of the events in questions and a lot more English readers in the early 17th century would know when Easter was but were clueless to when Passover was. :)
     
    #70 TCassidy, Sep 6, 2016
  11. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    I didn't say it was an error but was "testing the waters". Lo and Behold Dr Tom surfaced!.

    Personally I am more likely to agree with those who have said it was a response to a demand of the king to use the word "Easter" at least once in the NT.

    Acts 12:4 was the choice.

    But, I wouldn't call it an "error" either, just a poor choice.

    HankD
     
    #71 HankD, Sep 6, 2016
  12. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Bro. Tom, I may have misquoted Dr. White when I said he said it was filled with errors. I do know he said it had errors, but maybe not filled.
     
    #72 SovereignGrace, Sep 6, 2016
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  13. Internet Theologian

    Internet Theologian Well-Known Member

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    If he is KJVO then I'd be shocked if he admitted to errors in the text.
     
    #73 Internet Theologian, Sep 6, 2016
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  14. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    That's why I am PRESSING him for an answer. This reeks of a KJVO witch hunt...
     
    #74 SovereignGrace, Sep 6, 2016
  15. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    He doesn't believe there are any errors in the KJV. Neither do I (no errors of fact, just textual variants). But neither do I believe there are errors of fact in any other English translations (except those deliberately corrupted to conform with the doctrine of cults such as the NWT of the JWs).

    There are textual and translational variants but no errors of fact. :)
     
    #75 TCassidy, Sep 6, 2016
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  16. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Brother Tom, I tweeted Dr. White and he said...

    James White @DrOakley1689
    I would never use the phrase “filled with errors.” Inadequate, given the riches we possess.

    This was his response to my tweet...

    "didn't u say the TR is filled with errors in a recent DL? I used to be KJVO but thankfully God rescued me from that hot mess."
     
    #76 SovereignGrace, Sep 6, 2016
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  17. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    I really appreciate this post, but, imo, what you are saying and what Brother Jordan is saying, are NOT even close. Not even in the same solar system. He is finding 'errors' in other translation, if I am understanding him correctly. That is why I am pressing him for an answer.
     
    #77 SovereignGrace, Sep 6, 2016
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  18. Jordan Kurecki

    Jordan Kurecki Well-Known Member
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    I do not believe there any And yes I am KJO
     
    #78 Jordan Kurecki, Sep 6, 2016
  19. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    So, Jordan, you admit that God lost track of the word "book" in Revelation 22:19 in 382 AD and didn't find it again until 1525?

    Or do you think He lied about preserving His word for the use of all His people in every generation?
     
    #79 TCassidy, Sep 6, 2016
  20. Baptist Believer

    Baptist Believer Well-Known Member
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    Probably a dumb question, but I'm trying to recall where God has promised to preserve his word "for the use of all His people in every generation."

    I believe it, but can you point me to the scripture(s) that make this explicit promise?
     
    #80 Baptist Believer, Sep 6, 2016
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