In an appendix in Waite's DEFINED KJB, S. H. Tow asserted: "Without exception the translators were men of faith and sound understanding of God's Word" (p. 1669). Tow described the theology of the KJV translators as "pure and godly" (p. 1680). Ed DeVries maintained that the KJV translators "were orthodox in doctrine" (DIVINELY INSPIRED, p. 55). Were all the doctrinal views held by the KJV translators "orthodox," sound, and "pure?" Were the KJV translators perfect in their understanding of the Scriptures? Did they hold to any wrong doctrinal views?