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Does God HAVE To be "fair" In His Dealings With man?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JesusFan, Dec 21, 2011.

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  1. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    You again are making manmade assumptions regarding this doctrine of Divine Election/salvation though!

    did God morally obigate Himself to have salvation offered unto All in the Cross, IF jesus actually died to secure the sin debt for those whom God had chosen in him to be saved?

    Did God ythrough Cross of Christ really reconcile all creation back to himself?

    IF yes, than All will indeed be saved eventually, as jesus died for sins of all, and God is the One bring the reconcilliation...

    Do you hold to Universalism than?

    Know you dont, so we have to agree that reconcialation/atonement cannot be really secured for ALL peoples!

    You also seem to deem it unfair that God would "by pass" some, blaming them for rejecting jesus, in their "God caused blindess"

    Sinners willing reject jesus, and they are still obligated to Him even if not heard of jesus, due to being sinners itself!

    Fault Adam for that, not God!

    might want to check up on Karl barth, his dual theology of God judging us all as being sinners in adam, but he also had Jesus pay the price owed for all, jesus being both election for sinners and saints, as in that scenerio, at least have reconcialation/salvation for All!
     
    #21 JesusFan, Dec 22, 2011
  2. preacher4truth

    preacher4truth Active Member

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    Yes he is. Philosophy.
     
    #22 preacher4truth, Dec 22, 2011
  3. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Just so you understand, any statement that is not a direct quote of God (i.e. scripture), can be deemed as "man-made," including claims made by Calvinistic MEN.

    As discussed before, He provided the means by which anyone, through faith, can be reconciled to God, which is what makes His appeal genuine. If the provision is not there then the appeal cannot be sincere.

    Can you sincerely tell your child that you have a gift for them if they will only come and get it, when indeed you have not purchased them a gift? You could, but it would be a lie. God cannot lie, so when He makes an appeal to 'every creature' then I believe he has made provision for 'every creature.' To assume otherwise is biblically unfounded.

    You are forgetting the condition of faith. Did the snake raised in the dessert cure everyone's bites automatically, or were they required to gaze upon it in faith that it would heal? Likewise, we must gaze upon Christ in faith for the atoning provision to be applied. But to speculate that the provision is only been made for a select few while God is making an appeal to all is unfounded. I would think an four pointer, like yourself, would already believe that.
     
    #23 Skandelon, Dec 22, 2011
  4. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Being the resident '4 pointer" here on the BB, that is where i would say that the condition to appropiate the Grace of God provided by the atonement of the Cross is faith in jesus, but that cannot be met by sinners, so God supplies that needed faith to the elect in Christ!

    Jesus indeed did die as payment in full for all men( 4 pointer], but ONLY those who are able to have faith in him have it effectually applied to them [Cal part]
     
    #24 JesusFan, Dec 22, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 22, 2011
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