I was contemplating the atonement. Now if Christ died for ALL people inclusively and ALL sin without exception that would logically mean that Christ died for the sin(s) of unbelief, faithlessness and unrepentance. So since Christ died for ALL the sins or ALL the people inclusively and without exception, then wouldn't it mean that all people will be saved if ALL their sins are paid for, even unbelief, faithlessness and unrepentance?? Was the atonement SUFFICIENT for all sins of all men but only EFFICIENT for the elect?? Did the atonement POTENTIALLY save everyone but actually save NNE unless they believe by faith?? For whom was the atonement for? ALL men inclusively and without exception or only believers (the elect)?