Double Amen...truly, truly

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JonC δοῦλος, Jun 5, 2015.

  1. JonC

    JonC
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    Some insist that the “double amen” (truly truly, verily verily, ἀμήν ἀμήν) has theological significance and is unique to Jesus in usage throughout Scripture. The idea is that Jesus is himself verifying what He is about to say which is counter to a traditional cultural usage of verifying what another has said. But I notice that some translations prefer to render ἀμήν ἀμήν as “very truly” (NIV), “I assure you” (HCSB), or “most assuredly” (NKJV)…to name a few. I will grant that “truly, truly” or “verily, verily” would not carry significance in our language as well, and would only serve as an indicator for those who would research the usage and its significance (if it exists), where other translations would not.

    My question is whether or not there is truly any significance in Christ’s usage of ἀμήν ἀμήν.
     
  2. HankD

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    I've wondered myself and I've studied koine formally.

    My guess is that it is an emphatic roughly meaning - "Pay attention to what I'm saying".

    HankD
     
  3. Van

    Van
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    A quick search indicated the phrase "truly, truly, I say to you" appears 25 times in the New Testament, all in the Gospel of John, and all being the words of Jesus. As I read them, I think we can say Jesus was endeavoring to get someone or a group to pay attention because He was going to express something rather profound.

    Just as one example, John 8:58, Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."
     
  4. wpe3bql

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    Not being either a NT Greek whiz or a theologian, I do remember reading and/or hearing something to the effect that when a word (or expression) is repeated in God's Word, it is done for emphasizing the statement(s) which immediately follow that repetition.
     
  5. SovereignGrace

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    I wonder why John was the only one who quoted Jesus stating those words 'verily, verily' or 'truly, truly', or 'surely, surely', when the other three didn't?
     
  6. wpe3bql

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    Maybe this is one reason why John's Gospel isn't considered as one the Synoptic Gospels???

    Jest sayin'
     
  7. beameup

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    No doubt it was a Hebrew idiom (rabbinical) translated into the Koine Greek.
     
  8. SovereignGrace

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    Would you care to elaborate?
     
  9. Van

    Van
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  10. JonC

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    No, that isn't one of the reasons....but it is an interesting observation.
     
  11. Van

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    What if Jesus actually used the repetition (truly truly) when calling attention to His profound teaching, but the repetition was not important to the inspired purpose of the other Gospels and thus was not recorded? But in John's gospel, the repetition was important to the inspired purpose? OTOH, what if there was no intended difference, and we are considering making a mountain out of a mole hill?

    My approach is to ask the question, what is the least that is being said. That way we strive not to add, but also not to take away.
     

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