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Featured Draw = Taught = hear and learn - Jn. 6:45

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by The Biblicist, Jul 25, 2013.

  1. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    You incapable of responding to the evidences and so your only defense is bitterness, insults and false accusations in a clear attempt to derail this thread.

    You are so full of hatred and it flows through all your words. Don't you have anything better to do than make personal attacks on people? YOu obvously are incapable of reasonable discussion or capable of responding to mere expository and exegetical comments as that is all I have provided for the last ten posts.

    If you cannot make reasonable comments on the threads why become a pawn of Satan to sow hatred, false accusations, insults? Surely you cannot justify your words as "spiritual" and Christ-like?
     
  2. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    In the above post we present simple exposition based upon sound exegetical principles. What response do we receive from those who disagree with our expositon? Do we receive any kind of expository based responses? No! We receive personal attacks, personal insults and words full of hatred. That should tell the readers quite a bit about the other view point and those who embrace it. If they had the truth, they would not be attacking my person but providing exegetical based reasons why my exposition is wrong. Do I make personal insutls about them in any of these posts? no!
     
  3. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Ommission of "thy children" from Quotation​


    Jn. 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

    Isa. 54:13 And all thy children shall be taught of the LORD; and great shall be the peace of thy children.

    Jesus purposely omitted "thy children" from his quotation. Why? I believe he was speaking of a principle that exceeded merely a Jewish audiance but that characterized salvation of all the elect and did not want to be understood as limited in a Jewish context. Second, the Isaiah passage and other related passages contextually referred to the end times when "all" Israel would be saved and yet Christ knew the principle applied to anyone saved at any time. This is also why he used the generic "him" and "every man" and "man" instead of racial terms.

    The "all" of verse 45 is the same "all" of verses 37 and 39 as in all cases the same results are they "all" come to Christ in faith irregardless of race. That is also the why he used the same Greek word in John 12:32 as used in verse 45 in the anathous construct to include the "Greeks" in that context who were wanting to see Jesus. The anarthous construct would literally read "all kinds of men" (masculine) thus inclusive of the Greeks wishing to see Christ which gave rise to this statement in the context. The "all" of John 12:32 is the same "all" of John 6:37,39, 45.
     
    #43 The Biblicist, Jul 26, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 26, 2013
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