Dynamic equivalence in KJV

If you guys understood you would understand

 

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"Anti-MV" or "KJVO": same difference.
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If you read and understood my post to where I explained quite clearly why I am anti-mv, you will then understand how I am not KJVO as you falsely view it. You all just don't want to see the truth regarding this issue, and placing a label on it and false one at that, somehow makes you feel justified at the end of the day so you can rest easily in your conding of errors and compromise with them.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Better = different, by definition.
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Then you have a very wrong understanding of the word better, and different.

Webster's New World Dictionary

better: 1. compar, of GOOD 2. more excellent 3. more suitable, desirable, etc. 4. larger/the better part of a day/ 5. improved in health - adv. 1. compar of WELL 2. in more excellent manner 3. in a higher degree 4. more - n. 1. a person superior in authority, etc. 2. a more excellent thing, condition, etc. -vt. 1. to outdo; surpass 2. to improve -better off in a better situation -get (or have) the better of 1. to outdo 2. to outwit

different: adj. 1. not alike 2. not the same 3. various 4. unusual -differently adv.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Michelle writes:

Once again Michelle tells me that I'd understand if only I understood.

 

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Once again Michelle tells me that I'd understand if only I understood.
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Just as I used to say to my husband when he complained about my nagging: "I wouldn't be nagging or need to nag, if you didn't give me the reason to". You are clearly NOT understanding and therefore have given me reason to tell you so.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Askjo said:

Click here: God forbid

Kinney's argument that "Other versions do it too" is a complete sidestepping of the issue, which is that the KJV does what you condemn in those other versions.

You confuse between Easter and passover.

No confusion at all. The apostle used the word for "passover." The KJV translators translated that "Easter" for no reason. Why should I believe uninspired translators, and not the apostle?

 

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No confusion at all. The apostle used the word for "passover." The KJV translators translated that "Easter" for no reason. Why should I believe uninspired translators, and not the apostle?
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Because this is the word that God preserved it to be in this verse in our English language for generations of believers. That is why. The word passover was invented by Tyndale, and this is the English word he so chose to invent and render for that Hebrew word as the day of Passover (in reference to the night the Lord passed over the houses with the blood on the doorposts), to which is in reference to the day our Lord Jesus Christ was crucified and became our sacrificial passover lamb.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Michelle writes:

Translation: "I don't care what God originally inspired the writers of Scripture to mean. The KJV Translator's opinion when inserting "Easter" into the text supercedes even God's originally inspired meaning."

 

Let's see how this works. If there's a difference between the "different" editions of the KJV revisions then it's "better" but not "different" even though "things which are different are not the same" but if there is a "difference" between an MV and the KJV (any revision) then it's "different" as well as a "corruption" even if it agrees with one of the KJV "different" (or rather "better") KJV revisions.

My how dizzying is the KJVO logic which becomes more and more convolulted each time it gets revised by their self-proclaimed prophets.

since michelle has now reverted to the dictionary, (EEK!) the corrupted works of man how's this one?

HankD

 

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"Easter" is not the name of the day of Christ's death as the passover lamb, it is the name of the day of the resurrection. Good try though.
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I never said it was. It is you all who are saying it is. Good try for you though, trying yet again to twist the truth around. The word Passover is about the crucifiction of Christ Jesus our Lord and that HE is our sacrificial lamb of God, who shed his blood for the remission of our sins. Easter is not passover. Yet, you are telling me it is trying to claim that the KJB is in error. IT is NOT. You are the one in error thinking it should say Passover, to which it is not referring to, since Passover was already past. It is either referring to the resurrection of our Lord, or it is referring to the pagan holiday, or it is referring to both. But it is INDEED the CORRECT rendering of this passage. PASSOVER is NOT.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Some one better let Luke know.
Oh wait he's in heaven. But its OK according to the AV1611 Apocrypha to communicate with the dearly departed.

HankD

 

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Let's see how this works. If there's a difference between the "different" editions of the KJV revisions then it's "better" but not "different" even though "things which are different are not the same" but if there is a "difference" between an MV and the KJV (any revision) then it's "different" as well as a "corruption" ".

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It amazes me how you claim to know and understand foriegn langauges, yet you cannot even understand your very own plain native language.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Translation: "I can't dispute what you're saying, so I'll just attack you, instead."

 

Whenever double-speak such as the KJVO ill-logic is introduced into any language confusion abounds.

HankD

 

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Whenever double-speak such as the KJVO ill-logic is introduced into any language confusion abounds.

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NO, rather it is your not UNDERSTANDING plain English and the meanings of English words. You are the one guilty of introducing ill - logic and confusion because you lack understanding in basic English words and their meanings.

For example:

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Hank quoted:

Let's see how this works. If there's a difference between the "different" editions of the KJV revisions then it's "better" but not "different" even though "things which are different are not the same" but if there is a "difference" between an MV and the KJV (any revision) then it's "different" as well as a "corruption" even if it agrees with one of the KJV "different" (or rather "better") KJV revisions
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Your confusion is apparent, which stems from your not undersanding plain English words and their meanings.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Michelle said "It is either referring to the resurrection of our Lord, or it is referring to the pagan holiday, or it is referring to both."

Which of those would be reasons why Herod was waiting for it, to please the Jews? No, Herod was waiting for Passover (the whole 8 days) to finish.

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Herod was not waiting for the Jewish week of unleavened bread to pass to please the jews, nor was he waiting until after the resurrection of our Lord to pass. He was intending after the pagan Easter (his holiday) to bring him forth to the jews. The jews would have GLADLY desired for Peter to be killed immediately, as this also did not stop them at the Lord's crucifiction. The Romans were the ones to bring forth the execution, not the jews, and therefore would not have hindered them whatsoever. It was Herod's holiday, and Herods intention to kill Peter, to which is why he waited.


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Luke 22:1, Michelle. Luke 22:1. It will not go away.
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You are misinterpreting scriptures. Please read these scriptures, and notice that Passover is never indicated as being the days of unleavened bread.

Exodus 12:5-27, 42-43, 34:18-25
Lev. 23:1-8
Numbers 9:1-12, 28:20, 33:3-4
Deut. 16:1-15
Joshua 5:10-11
2 Kings 23
2 Chron.30, 35
Ezra 6:19-22
Ezekiel 45:21-23
Matt. 26:2-5, 17-19
Mark 14:1-2, 12-16
Luke 2:41-43, 22:1-15, 23
John 2:13-23, 6:4, 11:55-56, 12:1-20, 13:1,
18:28-39, 19:14-42
1 Cor.5:7-8
Hebrews 11:28


Not once is the days/feast of unleavened bread called Passover. Passover is separate from the ordinance of the days/feast of unleavened bread. There is the feast of the Passover, and the feast of unleavened bread. The feast of unleavend bread was to be observed after and during the Passover.
This is what the scriptures say. You are believing what man has said, and the jews in particular about this. Remember, Luke was a saved holy man of God, and he knew the difference.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle