Recently, I overheard a conversation in which a preacher was being gently rebuked by a friend for what he considered to be a "mishandling the Word of God." This preacher used a portion of a verse to support a position relative to the political arena. His preacher friend quickly pointed out that the verse had nothing to do with politicians but rather with false teachers. I understand that each passage has but one literal "interpretation," but can have many different "applications." My question that I pose for discussion is simply this, "Does using an application of a verse instead of the literal interpretation constitute mishandling of the Word of God?"