Psalm 78:36 in the KJV sez, "Nevertheless they did FLATTER him(God) with their mouth..." while some newer versions say 'deceive' insteada 'flatter'. The Hebrew word here is 'pathah', which can be either flatter or deceive. Some KJVOs object to the 'deceive' rendering because God cannot be deceived. But neither can He be flattered! However the people described in the Psalm thought they were getting away with flattering or deceiving God. Can the Hebrew readers here shed a little light on this subject, please? Is either 'flatter' or 'deceive' correct in this verse? Is it simply a matter of translators' choice? After all, the KJV renders 'pathah' as 'deceive' eight times and as 'flatter' only twice.