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Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Greektim, Aug 24, 2011.
Doesn't Rom. 9:21-22 teach double predestination?
I answered your question in post #58 in the now closed thread.
Willis already started another thread...
As God predestined His elected ones to become saved by his Grace applying to their behalf, but He does NOT actively predestine lost to hell, does not "choose" them directly for hell, he judges them as going there, but it is based on their OWN 'free will" choose to go there due to being sinners who also rejected Christ!
No, that is dealing with the nation of Israel and God's sovereign choice of nations in His plans.
Well since I started the first thread... I figured I would start the 2nd thread. Plus, I intended interaction amongst Calvinists... so...
That wasn't much of an answer. It was a quotation from a weak commentary.
I know it may have been a yes or no question... but w/out explaining or proving your answer is pontification. Plus, I wanted this to be for Calvinists. Pretty sure you aren't one (although I could be wrong).
So... I don't care that someone else started another thread piggybacking off of what I was trying to do amongst Calvinists.
Ok... but you didn't address the verse I mentioned. All else is pontification if it is not supported by Scripture but only a "no" and a systematic explanation.
I was merely pointing out that this is a duplicate thread as one has already been started. Normally duplicate threads are closed on this board and I was giving you a heads up.
Enjoy your party :wavey:
Thanks for the heads up...
Unfortunately... the other "duplicate" thread has already deteriorated into another rabbit trail as did the first.
Even more unfortunate is that this one is doing the same. It is hard to get Biblical discussion going around here I fear.
Greek....did you ever once give us your definition of DP? If you did, I missed it.:smilewinkgrin:
Forgive me but no... I thought it was understood
Plus... I would love clarification or correction if you could proffer any.
DP is simply God predestining some unto salvation and others to damnation. The second predestination can be equated with reprobation.
Have you seen this & digested it?
I tried to be a Calvinist but my tulip died.
No....if you read the next two verses you will see it is individual election to salvation ...worldwide
24Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
25As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
26And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God.
gentiles elected and called one new man in Christ ..individual salvation according to God's elective purposes:thumbs::thumbs::thumbs:
I'm not allowed to play on this thread, but Romans 9-11 has been discussed more times than I can count. I'm content in my understanding of it as I'm sure you are.