For Modern Versions onlyists

From www.studylight.org interlinear studybible
Definition
to be a retailer, to peddle

to make money by selling anything
to get sordid gain by dealing in anything,
to do a thing for base gain

to trade in the word of God
to try to get base gain by teaching
divine truth

to corrupt, to adulterate
peddlers were in the habit of
adulterating their commodities for
the sake of gain

Translated Words
KJV (1) - corrupt, 1;
NAS (1) - peddling, 1;

Where:
2 Cor 2:17 - notice, it's the same Greek word for either version.

So, your poll is invalid - we can't choose more than one. Also, no one I know is MVonly. I'm not. I use a variety of English translations - old and new.

 

Whats a MVOnlyist?

I am certainly not one.
so I can't answer in your poll.

 

Are there ANY MV onlyists?

The VAST majority who use MV also use and value the KJV.

 

The important question is not what the word "corrupt" means, but what the Greek word translated "corrupt" means. Does the KJV translate it correctly?

 

I guess I can't answer this one, since I'm not a "Modern Version Onlyist."

 

None of the above.


It means EXACTLY what it says,CORRUPT!!

Webster knows what it means..

Jehudi knew what it meant too..

 

I believe the Bible is the
inerrant written words of God.
It is nonsense for me to
believe that my understanding
of all the Bible is inerrant.

You believe your Bible is the
inerrant written words of God.
It is nonsense for me to
believe that your understanding
of all your Bible is inerrant.


Surely i have respect enough for my
Brother in Christ that i will allow you your
opinion. If further you believe your
opinion, i will allow that also.
But i will receive the same consideration
for my opinion/belief.
I am speaking of my opinion of what the Bible
said versus your opinion of what the Bible said.
What the Bible said is true, what
the Bible means is your opinion or
is my opinion.
Don't get your opinion of what the Bible meant
get confused with what the Bible said.
-------------------------

So Brother, you going to sit around
fooling yourself that you are more pious
than the rest of us or are you going to tell us
what you see "corrupt" means in 2 Cor. 2:17?

 

The New Living Translation

2 Corinthians 2:17 (NLT = New Living Translation)

You see, we are not like those hucksters – and there are many of them – who preach just to make money. We preach God's message with sincerity and with Christ's authority. And we know that the God who sent us is watching us

2 Corinthians 2:17 (HCSB = Holmon Christian Standard Bible):

For we are not like the many who make a trade in God's message for profit, but as those with sincerity, we speak in Christ, as from God and before God.

II.Corinthians II:17 (KJV1611):

For wee are not as many which
||corrupt the word of God: but as of
sinceritie, but as of God, in the sight of
God speake we in Christ.

||OR, deale deceitfully with.

The Real KJV of 1611 (not that
Modern Version KJV1769) has a second
best translation:

II.Corinthians II:17 (KJV1611):

For wee are not as many which
deale deceitfully with the word of God: but as of
sinceritie, but as of God, in the sight of
God speake we in Christ.

 

I looked in the dictionary under corrupt, an there I found a picture of the message and the good news bible.

 

I have to add my voice to those who say, What is a modern version onlyist?? I have never heard of one. Sounds like someone is making stuff up.

To the point of the question, the word translated "corrupt" in the KJV is the word kapeleuontes, a present active participle, masculine nominative singular. It means to "peddle for profit." God inspired Paul to write a word that means "peddle for profit." What else do we need to know?

 

The Greek word, as Pastor Larry pointed out, can be used for "peddle for profit", either legitimately or corruptly. From the context, we see Paul was referring to dishonest hucksters, similar to those of today. A traveling Bible salesman in Greece would be called a "kapelos", as would the Fuller Brush man, or Flim Flam Freddy. Corrupt or not corrupt is determined by the context.

 

"Huckster" and "peddle" kind of like certain KJVO bookstores who tell you not to trust others, since their versions are "corrupt" and then turn around and sell only the KJV, and only KJVO authors. Cha-ching! (does that sound like an old cash register?)

 

Perhaps you missed my post. I didn't give a definition of corrupt. That is not the issue. The issue is a definition of the word that God inspired Paul to use. That word is not "corrupt;" it is "kapeleuo." That is the word I defined.

I think peddle is a verb and huckster is a noun. Peddle is a common, more formal word. Huckster is a kind of slang word. Peddle is to sell. It is a neutral word and can be either positive or negative in meaning. Huckster has what seems to be a negative connotation of a flim flam salesman. Other than that, I don't know.

The point of 1 Cor 2 is that some people were changing the message to appeal to listeners. They were "peddling" the word of God, meaning the message. This has nothing to do with a translation of the Bible. Therefore, it really doesn't belong in teh translation forum. Of course, some, with no concern for the actual meaning of God's word, have tried to make this verse about translations. Paul meant nothing of the kind. He was talking about prostituting the message. Just read the context and you will see that ...

 

I have a confession. I am a MVOnlyist.

I don't use a version of scripture nor reference a text... why to be honest, I have never even held a Bible that was not produced 1400 years or more after the God-inspired originals. All of my Bibles are MV's... even the 1611 Anglican product.