Gender inclusive or exclusive, how do we know?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Gina B, Jul 31, 2004.

  1. Gina B

    Gina B
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    How do we know when the bible is speaking to all humans, or when it truly is pertaining only to men?
    Some will say in parts of the bible that the word men means men only, he means men only, but sometimes it does mean he and she, as in it says to be a man must be born again.
    How do we know when it means what?
    Gina
     
  2. Daniel David

    Daniel David
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  3. dianetavegia

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    I agree Daniel David. I think it's clear because of context even if it means reading a whole chapter or the verses before and after the chapter.

    Diane [​IMG]
     
  4. Artimaeus

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  5. Dr. Bob

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    Also there are two distinct Greek words that give help (sometimes).

    Andres = males
    Anthropos = mankind
     
  6. Craigbythesea

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    Amen! [​IMG] [​IMG]
     
  7. donnA

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    [​IMG]
     
  8. GODzThunder

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    yep, one word sums it up!
     
  9. Gina B

    Gina B
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    What's a situation where they wouldn't be useful?
     
  10. Dr. Bob

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    Luke 24:19 is a really neat use of aner/andres (the word takes different form depending on the case)

    And hee saide vnto them, What things? And they said vnto him, Concerning Iesus of Nazareth, which was a Prophet, mighty in deede and word before God, and all the people.

    The Greek "aner" comes before Prophet in the original, although not translated in the AV1611! It means "man" or "male" in gender used in aposition to a substantive.

    Just showing the "prophet" (Jesus in this case) was male in case anyone wondered!!
     

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