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Genesis 1-2 - a perfect paradise?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by 4study, Aug 1, 2003.

  1. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene,

    Okay. Then let's go back to our previous posts and lay down some premises.

    1. There is only one way to know God, that is, via the Son, Christ Jesus.

    2. Adam, before the transgression, knew God through Christ.

    3. In Christ dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily. (Col. 2:9).

    At what time is Christ not "the Lamb slain before foundation of the world"? Furthermore, if Adam knew God via Christ, before the transgression, Adam must have known the concept afore mentioned. That is, that Christ died for Him.

    The point is this. Regardless of the transgression, even if it had not occurred, Christ still dies.
     
  2. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene in response to Matt Black,

    What, exactly, is meant by "perfect state"? Scripture?
     
  3. Paul of Eugene

    Paul of Eugene New Member

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    Okay. Then let's go back to our previous posts and lay down some premises.

    1. There is only one way to know God, that is, via the Son, Christ Jesus.

    2. Adam, before the transgression, knew God through Christ.

    3. In Christ dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily. (Col. 2:9).

    At what time is Christ not "the Lamb slain before foundation of the world"? Furthermore, if Adam knew God via Christ, before the transgression, Adam must have known the concept afore mentioned. That is, that Christ died for Him.

    The point is this. Regardless of the transgression, even if it had not occurred, Christ still dies.
    </font>[/QUOTE]Well, with God, Who is outside of time, being eternal and the creator of time, the cause of a thing is not necessarily in advance timewise for the result of a thing. Thus, Adam's Sin is the original cause for the need for Christ to be our redeemer, it is this sin that makes it necessary for Christ to die on our behalf, yet He truly is "slain from the foundation of the world", in that God always knew Adam would choose to sin and need redemption along with us all.

    Neither Christ nor Adam would have had to die if their had been no sin.

    As for your "perfect state" question, I only mean by that they were where God wanted them to be as God wanted them to be at that time. By way of analogy, a human couple may say of their newborn "Its a perfect baby!" But if in two years it still looks exactly the same they are no longer calling it perfect, they are hounding the doctor trying to find out what's wrong.
     
  4. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene,

    This explanation echoes the vast majority. It states that Adam’s destiny was to transgress. This is why I said earlier “Adam had to transgress”. By implication it means Adam (and creation) did not need redemption, and thus Christ, during the pre-transgression period (i.e. Gen.1&2). This is inconsistent theology.

    One has to decide the following;

    Is there one or two ways to know God?
    Is Christ “The Redeemer” only some of the time or all of the time?

    I believe there is only one way to know God.
    I believe "Redeemer" is an aspect of who God is, which we know through Christ. Thus, there is never a time in which God is not a "Redeemer".
     
  5. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene,

    By the way, I was wondering what leads you to believe this. Scripture?
     
  6. Paul of Eugene

    Paul of Eugene New Member

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    By the way, I was wondering what leads you to believe this. Scripture? </font>[/QUOTE]OK Here are some verses that lead me to believe it is because of our sin that Christ had to die:

    Rom 5:8
    8 But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
    NASU

    Rom 6:10
    10 For the death that He died, He died to sin once for all; but the life that He lives, He lives to God.
    NASU

    1 Cor 15:3-4
    3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,

    4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
    NASU

    1 Peter 3:18
    18 For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit;
    NASU
     
  7. Paul of Eugene

    Paul of Eugene New Member

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    You have misconstrued what I have been trying to communicate. First of all, you use the word "destiny" in regard to Adam's transgression. This implies Adam had no choice, whereas I clearly stated that it is my belief Adam had a choice. It is only afterwards, from our human perspective, that we can see he chose to sin. But know this: anything you are forced to do is not a sin. Unless you have freedom to choose to do it or not, there can be no responsibility for your choice and therefore no guilt for your choice.

    And when you speak of the pre-transgression period, you must speak of temporal matters as they are seen by men. When you speak of eternity as seen by God, in which all is in His Eternal Now, that is the appropriate realm in which to speak of His being slain from the foundation; seeing Adam's sin from the foundation as well, He knows from the foundation what would has to be done. (I use the present tense which is as good as any tense to use for the reality of God's Eternal Now, an experience we cannot hope to truly understand).
     
  8. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene,

    None of the scriptures you've quoted support the concept "Christ would not have died if Adam had not transgressed". Perhaps you could provide just a little commentary to help me understand why you think they do? [​IMG]
     
  9. Paul of Eugene

    Paul of Eugene New Member

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    No, no, now its your turn! Do you think that Adam would have died if he had never sinned? How about some scripture to say he would have died without sin?
     
  10. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene,

    I understand what you have said in previous posts. I’m not debating about whether Adam has a choice or not. I actually agree that Adam has choice, but in an attempt to stay on track…

    You said, “Adam's Sin is the original cause for the need for Christ to be our redeemer…”. If this be true, regardless of whether Adam has a choice or not, he must transgress since this is the cause for Christ’s redemption. Otherwise, as you’ve also stated, there is no need for Christ to die. This is why I used the term “destiny”.

    The “pre-transgression period” is Gen. 1&2 for purposes of my posts on this thread.

    Maybe we can narrow this down a little. Think with me for a moment upon God and Adam’s relationship before the transgression .

    How does Adam know God? By Christ, right? Who is Christ? He is the “fullness of the Godhead bodily”. One aspect of this “fullness” is the office of “mediator”, right? Does Adam need a mediator? Yes.

    Do you agree?
     
  11. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene,

    I'd be happy to. [​IMG]

    I Cor.15:47 "The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven. As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly."

    Adam, as his name implies, was made from the dust of the earth. He is "earthy". God said to Adam after the transgression, "for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return". The common teaching is that this "physical" death was a result of his transgression. I see it as the result of how God created him, earthy. Adam was not destined to stay an "earthy" being. He was always destined to "bear the image of the heavenly". And all of this, regardless of the transgression.
     
  12. Paul of Eugene

    Paul of Eugene New Member

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    When we contemplate the communication of the infinite with the finite, that is as God communes with a man, there must be some kind of interface to accommodate the discrepancy. The man is of course unable to do anything to make it occur; all accomodation comes from the divine side. This is a fair thing to say about the communion even with the unfallen Adam and Christ; I certainly have no quarrel with using the term "intermediary" for Christ serving this office. Adam's destiny was never to be limited to the earth; I can suppose that over the time of the eternal years his horizons would need to expand, or it would begin to be a prison for his developing intellectual and spiritual life and God would never have so imprisoned him. There would be a translation, a graduation, to a more spiritual existance.

    To us, death is the defeat of life; the ultimate refutation of our value. We have faith that Christ is able to overcome our death. We identify with Christ, we become one with Him. He takes on with us our death and we take on with Him His resurrection.

    Adam if he had not sinned would not have faced a defeat and a denial of his value. His translation to a more spiritual existance would have been akin to a graduation ceremony. The word for it would never have the connotations and dread we have for the word "death" in our language.

    But one could discern, I suppose, some parallels with our experience of death. I see no need for Christ to go through the same experience in this alternative universe scenario.
     
  13. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Very, very interesting...

    I find the debate as to whether Adam 'needed' Jesus as mediator pre-Fall and whether Jesus 'needed' to die had there been no Fall fascinating. Elsewhere on this board, in the 'Pseudo-Gospel' thread we apparently have YECers stating there must have been a literal historical Fall for there to have been a redemption, that there must have been a literal first Adam for there to have been a second. Some questions, therefore:-

    1. If Adam was without sin, he would have been perfect, so why the need for a mediator - could he not have communicated direct with the Father and indeed the fullness of the Godhead?

    2. If however, he did need a mediator and Jesus would have had to have died even if he had remained in a sinless state, does this not destroy the YEC argument that the Fall has to be a literal historical event in order to 'necessitate' the cross?

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  14. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Paul of Eugene,

    It appears we’ve reached some common ground regarding Adam’s need for a “mediator”. So with this in mind, let’s ask the question “What else does Adam need to sustain a relationship with God?”.

    Dependency is the issue. How dependant upon God is Adam? I believe his dependency is exhaustive. Not only does Adam need a mediator in order to accommodate the discrepancy between the Divine and the non-divine, he needs the same “mediator”, that is Christ, to keep, guard, and sustain the relationship. The conception, initiation, and progression of the relationship is all dependent upon God, not Adam. Therefore, when we think of Christ in the office of “Redeemer” and remembering what we’ve said about dependency and “mediator”, at the very least, to remain consistent, we must say, “Adam always needs a Redeemer”. By virtue of being the Divine Creator’s creature, and in order for their relationship to be sustained, Adam needs to be covered by the perfect blood of Christ. The only difficulty with this is the tendency we have to place “Redemption” in time. To overcome this, we must remind ourselves that in Christ “dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily”. This must include redemption or the office of “Redeemer”. So at no time is Christ not “the Redeemer”. He is the same yesterday, today, and forever.

    I do not attempt to speculate what Adam’s, as well as his offspring’s, progression to spiritual maturity would have been like if there was no transgression. The primary point is noting that God has always provided all the means necessary for man to make the proper choices in the context of growth. The consummation of which is the New Jerusalem relationship. I think this is critical to the foundation of one’s personal theology.

    Thank you for your time and input.
     
  15. Paul of Eugene

    Paul of Eugene New Member

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    4Study:

    You are very welcome, and thank you as well for an interesting exchange.
     
  16. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Matt Black,

    I’ll comment on your questions as you’ve ordered them.

    1. At what time was Adam without sin? The problem lies in defining what “sin” is. According to my understanding, “sin” is “short of the glory of God”. Since God is the highest in holiness and perfection, anything He creates is short of His glory and thus needs His covering hand. This is partly why Adam needs a mediator. Adam, just like any other human being, cannot approach (i.e. have a relationship with) the Holy God without a medium.

    2. Yes, it does stifle the argument to which you refer. If Adam doesn’t need a mediator before the Fall, then it brings up many questions about the Fall itself.
     
  17. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Thanks. With regard to #1, this then raises the questions, "Did Adam/ man sin pre-Fall? Or was he merely in a state of sin as being "short of the glory of God"? And to what extent is being "in" sin different from sinning?" This does beg the question as to whether it is necessary for the Fall to be an historical event. With regard to #2, do you not mean "if Adam did need a mediator pre-Fall"?

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  18. 4study

    4study New Member

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    Matt,

    Good questions. I believe Adam was created “short of the glory of God”. Whether or not Adam (or Eve) committed any sinful activities is not the point. It has to do with dependency. Once you decide upon that, then the concept of “sin” can be brought into thought.

    The term “sin” presents problems because of our preconceived ides. It usually connotes that which is “evil”, “wicked”, or “lustful” to name a few. Yet the Greek term simply means, “to be guilty” or “in error” or “short” of whatever is “right” or “ought to be”. In the latter sense, Adam is certainly “short” of what is “right” if we think if God as the highest degree of “Right”. However, this doesn’t mean Adam (or Eve) was created in a state of “guiltiness” or “error”.

    Another thing to consider is the context of God’s creation. What is the purpose behind Adam and Eve’s responsibilities in the Garden of Eden? Whatever you decide “sin” is, in order to be consistent, should fit into the context of the covenant between God and Adam. In other words, “sin” is not about morals.

    Regarding #2, if Adam does not need a mediator, it suggests that the Fall had to occur since it is the cause for the necessity for Christ. Otherwise, as many will say, Christ, and thus “a mediator”, is not necessary, which is why it is said Adam “knew God directly” pre-Fall.
     
  19. Matt Black

    Matt Black Well-Known Member
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    Sorry, I think we're misunderstanding each other on #2. What I thought you meant by "if Adam needed a mediator pre-Fall it raises questions about the Fall itself" was: if Adam did need a mediator and therefore a Redeemer, it renders the Fall an irrelevance as an historical event.

    Yours in Christ

    Matt
     
  20. Artimaeus

    Artimaeus Active Member

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    I have been trying to follow the logic here but, then I realized, there isn't any. The Fall is when Adam sinned. So, how could you (or anyone) even ask if Adam sinned before he sinned (sin pre-Fall)? How could there be a need for a mediator between God and man if there were no estrangement between them. It makes no sense whatsoever to define sin as "short of the Glory of God" when what you mean by that is that Adam wasn't God. Are angels in a state of sin because they aren't God?
     
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