Two questions. First question: 1 Cor 14:33 in the KJV says "God is not the author of confusion..." - how many times have we heard that used to condemn multiple versions? Ignorning the context of the verse for a moment (which has nothing to do with versions, but a situation prophesying has become chaotic), has anyone noticed that the words "the author" are in italics in the KJV? These words are not in the Greek, and not even required to be added to the English for grammatical reasons. Why "the author"? Why not, as Young's literal has it "God is not [a God] of tumult"? 2nd question, more minor: The KJV has: "[33-34] For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints. Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law." The NIV has: "[33-34] For God is not a God of disorder but of peace. As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says." The text is essentially the same, but the first sentence ends in a different place in the NIV: before the phrase about congregations of the saints, instead of after it. Personally, I think the two sentences make more sense the way the NIV rendered them. I realize that originally, the Greek scripture had no punctuation. Does the way the NIV placed punctuation, vs. how most other versions used punctuation here, make any difference?