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God's hardening vs. total depravity

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by npetreley, Feb 26, 2006.

  1. Timtoolman

    Timtoolman New Member

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    You continue to avoid explaining how your view does not contradict the free will interpretations of 2 Peter 3:9. REGARDLESS OF THE REASON (whether or not man hardened his own heart first), if God must harden a man's heart in order to block his innate ability to respond to the Gospel, then God is certainly willing that some should perish, and -- according to YOU, not me -- takes action to make sure they perish. Therefore, according to your premise, 2 Peter 3:9 cannot possibly mean that God is not willing that ANY (anyone who lived, lives or will live) perish.

    Obviously you are unable to reconcile your view with 2 Peter 3:9 because you are doing everything possible to avoid the issue with each post.
    </font>[/QUOTE]You are playing Scott with me now. I MOST assuredly have shown why God hardens hearts in my last post. Rather you like the answer or not is different but the answer is there!
     
  2. Timtoolman

    Timtoolman New Member

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    Get back to you Scott, there is alot and it will take awhile. Give me acouple of hours, I have to go to work.
     
  3. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    Do what?

    All I did was ask you for information.

    I have in the past confronted you for giving answers that do not address the essence of the question... but not here... and not my problem. As far as I know, I have answered you directly to every question you have ever posed.

    I ask you questions that have simple, biblical, yes/no/explain type answers... and you evade.

    I'm not "playing"- that's what you have done.
     
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