Let me state at the outset that I prefer using the KJV and believe that it is overall the most reliable translation that is generally availible today. I even wrote a "tract" that went into great detail about why I believe the word "baptism" was a good translation by the KJV translators. (I think that the tract may still be available on the "Plains Baptist Challenger" and/or the "Tabernacle Baptist Church," Lubbock, TX website.) On the other hand, I am not an ardent KJVO advocate for many of the reasons that are mentioned in other threads. My basic question to die-hard KJVO proponents is this: Since "faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God" (Romans 10:17), was there a "Word of God" in English before 1611? If there was not a "Word of God," how then did people get saved prior to 1611? If there was a "Word of God" prior to 1611, what was that "Word of God" called, and why would there be a need for another "Word of God" (i.e., the KJV)? Comments?