Greatly changed interpretation of Malachi 3:10

Discussion in 'Free-For-All Archives' started by Russ Kelly, Mar 24, 2004.

  1. Russ Kelly

    Russ Kelly
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    (This toopic has been moved from Baptist Theology.)

    Question: Why would 100% of the tithe go to the Temple when 98% of the people it was designed to feed lived outside of Jerusalem in the Levitical cities?

    1. The first tithe (of three) was intended to replace property inheritance and to feed the Aaronic priests and their Levite servants. The Levite servants to the priests received the whole tithe and the Aaronic priests received one tenth of the whole tithe, plus many other offerings (Numbers 18; Deu 12:12; 14:27-29; 18:1-2; Josh 13:14, 33; 14:3; 18:7; Ezek 44:28)

    2. The vast majority of the priests and Levites lived in their Levitical cities around Jerusalem. Jerusalem was not a Levitical city. (Joshua 20, 21; Numbers 35; First Chronicles 6:51-81; Second Chronicles 31:15-19; Nehemiah 10:37; 11:29; 13:10.) Naturally, most of the tithe was sent to where most of the Aaronic priests and their Levite servants lived with their families.

    3. There were far too many priests and Levites than needed to serve in the Temple. Therefore, both the Aaronic priests and Levite servants were divided into twenty four (24) courses for one week terms of service in the Temple -- roughly two weeks per year, plus special holy days. Thus, only four to six percent (4-6%) of the families who required the tithe as food were ministering at the Temple at any one
    time. (1st Chronicles 28:13, 21; 2nd Chronicles 8:14; 23:8; 31:2, 15-19; 35:4, 5, 10; Neh. 11:30; 12:24).

    4. Among this 4-6% of the families of priests and Levites ministering at the Temple, only male priests over thirty yeas of age and male Levites over the age of twenty went to the temple.
    Therefore, even if these composed half of the family, the total percentage of priests and Levites at the Temple at any given time period would not exceed 2-3% of the total. (1st Chronicles 23:3; 2nd Chron. 31:15-19).

    5. Nehemiah 10: 35-39 and 2nd Chronicles 31:15-19 are very clear that the tithe went to the Levitical cities and was distributed to the 96-97% of the priests and Levites living in those cities as their food supply.

    6. Therefore, common sense teaches us that the “portions” “as each day required” found in Nehemiah 12:44 and 47 and 2nd Chronicles 31:14 was only this 2-3% of the total tithe required to feed the 2-3% of the priests and Levites taking their turn ministering for one week. It is equally clear that the remainder of the tithe was given by “portion” to the families of the priests and Levites --not at the Temple-- but in their
    Levitical cities, per 2nd Chronicles 31:15-19.

    7. Conclusion: Unless the above biblical presentation can be proven to be wrong, then there is a fundamental error in the usual interpretation of Malachi 3:10.

    Neh 10:35 firstfruits of land to temple storehouse for priests
    Neh. 10:36 firstfruits of herds to temple storehouse for priests
    Neh. 10:37a firstfruits of bread to temple storehouse for priests
    Neh. 10 37b WHOLE TITHE to LEVITICAL CITIES for LEVITES
    Neh 10:38 1/10th of tithe to temple storehouse for priests

    2 Chron 31:14-19 most of both tithes stayed in the cities

    Neh. 12:44, 47 those ministering had their portion of their tithe

    Gleaned from : www.shouldthechurchteachtithing.com
     
  2. frozencell

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    I think if the Bible taught tithe, the church should teach it, too.
     
  3. Russ Kelly

    Russ Kelly
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    Agreed. The New Covenant does not teach tithing. Even the most quoted tithe test, Malachi 3:10, does not meant what most claim it means.
     
  4. SpiritualMadMan

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    But... (Monkey Wrench Time) Seeing the Church is a New testament Construct...

    Where is the 'Mandatory', 'Legally Required' Tithe Taught in the New Testament?

    As for Malachi 3:10...

    I am of the opinion that it speaks specifically of the 'welfare tithe'. The one to take care of the Fatherless, Widows, and Aliens.

    Something the church, by and large, has abdicated to the Government...

    But, also consider this... If the curse is done away with under the New Covenant. And, all the Promises of God are yea and amen in Christ...

    Can it not be said the the curse is done away with... But, the Blessings remain?

    So, if done as an act of Love... Tithing may not become bondage unto The Law...

    Just some disjointed thoughts... :D
     
  5. Russ Kelly

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    Madman
    1. The N.T. nowhere teaches tithing. One reason is that the priesthood of believers replaced the O.T. priesthood.
    2. The N.T. does not even perpetuate a welfare tithe. It perpetuates freewill giving to the poor in 2 Cor 8 and 9 and 1 Cor 16.
    3. Both curses and blessings ended at Calvary. The New Covenant was entirely new in terms of grace. Just as the U.S. Constitution replaced both good and bad parts of English law, even so does God's new covenant start over again.
    4. The only correct Biblical definitiion of tithe is FOOD. Carpenters (Jesus) and tentmakers (Paul) and other craftsmen never were qualified as tithepayers.
     
  6. Russ Kelly

    Russ Kelly
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    TDhis is incredible. Almost every conceivable doctrine is being discussed on this forum, but neither Baptists nor non-Baptists want to discuss the lie of tithing. My book is correctly subtitled (A Theologian's Conclusions about a Taboo Doctrine.
     
  7. gb93433

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    If the church does teach it does teach tithing as past tense only. The Bible taught sacrifice too. Does that mean we should continue to offer sacrifice? No! The Bible taught about priests. Does that mean we should have priests? No! Context determines what we do today. Not past tense theology.
     
  8. Russ Kelly

    Russ Kelly
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    GB
    Thanks for the input. One correction. The Bible teaches that every believer is a Priest. That fact alone should prove that tithing to support a priesthood is no longer valid.

    The New Covenant concept of pastor-teachers is totally new to the Old Testament concept.
     

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