The KJV has, "faith" here, while most other BV's have "hope." The 1917 edition of the Scofield Bible (KJV) has in it's middle coulumn that it is "hope"...I don't know if the real 1611 has this word for an alt reading (Ed, this is where you come in), since it's likely an "oversight" Anyhow, the T.R., Majority Text, and all Greek MSS have the Greek word for "hope", while the KJV has "faith". Scrivener thought this might be a mere oversight of the translators. The word in the Greek is "elpis" which is always trans "hope" every other time it is found in the T.R. (53 times). The word usually trans "faith" does not appear here, but in the next chapter (pistis). My question for you all, esp the KJVO's is the KJV wrong here, even though this word is never trans as "faith", except in this one instance in the KJV? Did the Tyndale, Geneva, NKJV, etc have it wrong here for trans this word, elpis as "hope"? Considering the meaning of this Greek word and the way the KJV translators consistently rendered it 53 times, can KJVO's honestly condemn MV's for rendering it as "hope"? BTW, the "faith, hope, and love"(Hebrews 10:22-24)parallel with 1 Cor 13:13 is missing in the KJV, but is still there in the MV's. (the word, faith in verse 22 is not the same Greek word trans faith in verse 23 in the KJV)see where the Greek can correct the English? KJVO's and MV proponents, I appreciate your thoughts. (Thanks to Rick Norris for most of the above).