Holy Spirit or Holy Ghost

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by Dr. Bob, May 19, 2010.

  1. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob
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    Another thread brought up this different English of the exact same inspired Greek words. So some questions for discussion:

    1. Which is "correct"?

    2. Is there a subtle difference in these words?

    3. Which do you personally use?

    4. Do you capitalize the adjective "holy" when referring to God the Spirit?

    5. Why the disproportionate amount of Holy Ghost 90 times, Holy Spirit only 4 times, so "variety" is not a reason (or it would be 50/50)?

    6. Do translations that do not add "holy" before Spirit (at least 200+ times Spirit is used alone) detract from His godhead?

    7. In preaching/teaching, do you use the impersonal "it" to refer to the holy Spirit or the personal pronoun "he"?
     
  2. Cutter

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    Another thread brought up this different English of the exact same inspired Greek words. So some questions for discussion:

    1. Which is "correct"?
    Either

    2. Is there a subtle difference in these words?
    I believe both words mean basically the same thing.

    3. Which do you personally use?
    I use Holy Spirit much more than Holy Ghost because of all of the Pentecostal connotations in using the Name, Holy Ghost, although I have used Holy Ghost some, too.

    4. Do you capitalize the adjective "holy" when referring to God the Spirit?
    Yes.

    5. Why the disproportionate amount of Holy Ghost 90 times, Holy Spirit only 4 times, so "variety" is not a reason (or it would be 50/50)?
    I do not know why. I would be interested in others thoughts on this.

    6. Do translations that do not add "holy" before Spirit (at least 200+ times Spirit is used alone) detract from His godhead?
    No.

    7. In preaching/teaching, do you use the impersonal "it" to refer to the holy Spirit or the personal pronoun "he"?
    No.
     
  3. Trotter

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    For me, "Holy Spirit" is correct. A "ghost" is supposed to be the spirit of the deceased but God is alive and well. I remember as a kid thinking that dealing with the Holy Ghost meant having some kind of seance.

    I always capitalize any of the names of God, so that would include the Holy Spirit, or even just Spirit at times. As for why Holy ghost is used so many times... you got me. It makes no sense to me. Maybe the Anglicans wanted to make it sound more exciting or something.

    I don't think not putting "Holy" in front of Spirit detracts from His godhead... as long as "Holy" was not in the Greek. If it is in the Greek then it ought to be in the translation as well.

    I never refer to the Holy Spirit as an "it". The Holy Spirit is a person and is to be referred to in the masculine just as one would refer to God the Father.Would anyone call God an "it"?
     
  4. Mississippi John

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    Same difference ! Go... feed the poor, take care of the widows and orphans....and "feed my sheep", thus saith the Lord"...........Amen
     
  5. NaasPreacher (C4K)

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    It appears that 'Holy Ghost' to refer to God and 'ghost' referring to a disembodied spirit developed alongside each other in English from the last 14th century. I seriously doubt, whatever the reason, that the KJV translating team used 'Holy Ghost' in order to sound 'more exciting.'

    Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit were synonymous. You note that the KJV never used 'Ghost' by itself to refer to the Holy Spirit.

    Translators use English synonyms all the time to translate the same Hebrew/Greek word. No big deal.
     
  6. robycop3

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    The Greek "hagios pneuma" is translated both ways in the KJV. I also believe the terms are synonymous. However, modern English speakers associate 'ghost' witk "Ghostbusters", "Casper the Friendly Ghost", etc. so I almost always use "Holy Spirit".

    I have seen some KJVOs tryta assign some special meanings to 'Holy Ghost', a fact that I find to be both amusing and silly, given both terms are rendered from the same Greek words, with no further meanings derived from the contexts in which they're used. Actually, it's just a lame excuse for the KJVOs to argue against the fact that most MVs say "Spirit" rather than "Ghost".
     
  7. NaasPreacher (C4K)

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    This is as far as can tell this in only the 'lunatic fringe' not the majority.
     
    #7 NaasPreacher (C4K), May 20, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: May 20, 2010
  8. Jerome

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    I note with amusement that the OP does not cite any translation in particular, yet the usual epithets "Anglican", "KJVO", are trotted out almost immediately. Obsessed much?

    The Geneva Bible employed the terms in similar proportions. I wonder what motives we can ascribe to its Reformed translators?
     
  9. Cutter

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    Me too, Brother. Astute observation. Duly noted. :BangHead:
     
  10. Dr. Bob

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    Not everything is about the Anglican Version, bro!! This is a question about "old" style of translating v the "modern" style of translating. AND about how YOU treat God the Spirit in your preaching, etc.

    Anyone have an NASB concordance (or ESV, NIV, et al) and can see if "ghost" is used to refer to the holy Spirit? Or if "holy" (simply an adjective used about 25% of the time to describe God the Spirit) is somehow capitalized?
     
  11. TC

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    According to my biblegateway search, the NIV does not contain the Holy Ghost at all. Holy Spirit or Spirit is used.
     
  12. NaasPreacher (C4K)

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    1. Which is "correct"?
    Either

    2. Is there a subtle difference in these words?
    Possibly today if one is looking for a difference. 'Ghost' alone might be confusing but 'Holy Ghost' is clear

    3. Which do you personally use?
    Probably Holy Spirit

    4. Do you capitalize the adjective "holy" when referring to God the Spirit?
    Yes, but don't think it is necessary

    5. Why the disproportionate amount of Holy Ghost 90 times, Holy Spirit only 4 times, so "variety" is not a reason (or it would be 50/50)?
    Not sure - I have no problem with synonyms.

    6. Do translations that do not add "holy" before Spirit (at least 200+ times Spirit is used alone) detract from His godhead?
    No, if the context is clear there is no need

    7. In preaching/teaching, do you use the impersonal "it" to refer to the holy Spirit or the personal pronoun "he"?
    He

    Sorry guys, this seems like a mountain/molehill situation to me.
     
    #12 NaasPreacher (C4K), May 21, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: May 21, 2010
  13. robycop3

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    But it seems it's this "LF" that honx its horn the loudest.

    I cannot see where saying "Holy Ghost" has any more significance over saying "Holy Spirit" without adding man's meanings to God's Scriptures.
     

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