Featured How close is the The Byzantine text-to the TR One?

I have not a clue how many texts there are of any of the scriptures.

With that said. Can we from the Greek text of lets say, Matt. 1:16,18,20 speaking of born, birth, conceived along with John 4:23,24 where Jesus speaks of God as Father and as Spirit, and also, John 8:54 where Jesus says the one they say is their God is his Father. Along with John 1:1,2,14 Hebrews 1:2 where we are told that now the God v1 now speaks (word) by Son.

According to the Greek texts can we understand God as literally begetting, conceiving by Holy Spirit, within the virgin Mary, the Son of the living God? The same Holy Spirit BYW that quickened this same dead Jesus.

Did Spirit , Word, God send his Word, to be spoken by his Son, by being born as a man child. I Am that I Am.

 

Yeshua1, the real issue in my opinion is scribal accuracy and I believe our choices do make a significant difference. Personally I believe Burgon has the correct explanation.

But since we don't have the originals (for God's good reason no doubt) I'm not going to throw my brethren into the Lake of Fire for making what may turn out to be a wrong choice of a scribal variant (not that you do that).

I very often turn to MV's to get a clearer rendering in modern English.

However I always choose the Scrivener 1894 NT text choice of scribal variant over the CT.

Thanks
HankD

 

Sorry, I had computer trouble or would have replied to this earlier.

Correct. Textual criticism is a highly specialized discipline. I not only teach Greek, I have been studying textual criticism off and on since1986, but still make blunders. So for someone who doesn't know Greek to read a book or two, then comment on an Internet forum as if they were an expert--or even to write a book on it as some KJVO folk have done--is kind of funny to me. :smilewinkgrin:

I agree.