How Do You Interpret?

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by Gershom, Apr 22, 2005.

  1. Gershom

    Gershom
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    What is David referring to when he says his "loins are filled with a loathsome disease?"
     
  2. Soulman

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    Sounds pretty nasty to me!
     
  3. Gershom

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    It seems to be a euphemism for something David had done or was struggling with at the time. Perhaps, since he refers to his loins, sexual in nature.
     
  4. Gershom

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    ...a "metaphor" is what I meant.
     
  5. Wes Outwest

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    What is David referring to when he says his "loins are filled with a loathsome disease?" </font>[/QUOTE]NOTHING if you take that verse as a stand alone scripture.

    In context David is describing his whole condition as being great distress.

    Been there, know the feeling!
     
  6. carlaimpinge

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    The passage concerns SIN within him. Compare Isaiah 1 concerning the sin of Israel concerning the unsoundness. Note also Paul's teaching about nothing goood being in the flesh. It's the sin nature from Adam.

    In Christ Jesus,
    Carl
     
  7. Gershom

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    I know about the sin nature. I beleive he is speaking in direct terms to some particular sin.
     
  8. carlaimpinge

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    The Psalm is one of REMEMBRANCE of sinfulness.

    It appears from the context it is more than ONE sin.

    Iniquities (verse 4), they (plural), WOUNDS stink and corrupt AS Isaiah 1,

    Verse 18 speaks of INIQUITY and SIN as the nature
     
  9. Gershom

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    It's not about remembrance, but of present sin, that is, of something he has presently done. He is calling out for God to "make haste to help" him.
     
  10. Gershom

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    It seems to me that the effects that he lists, e.g., his graoning, his heart panting, his failing strength, his mourning, the light of his eyes leaving him, etc., all point to the direct statement about the "disease" of his loins.
     
  11. carlaimpinge

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    Sorry, brother. You're mistaken.

    He's REMEMBERING his sin, which is more than one. (See verses 4, 18 again)
     
  12. Gershom

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    4 For mine iniquities are gone over mine head: as an heavy burden they are too heavy for me.

    18 For I will declare mine iniquity; I will be sorry for my sin.

    Looks like he's confessing present sin to me. BTW, I appreciate your thoughts. [​IMG]
     
  13. carlaimpinge

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    Thanks.

    It's gone past present confession of sin. It is remembrance of his iniquities FOR THE LORD'S ANGER has fallen because of them. (verses 2-3)

    David is requesting a measured response from God. (verse 1)

    It concerns the battle raging within a man who has the Holy Spirit (verses 8-10), which David did. (1 Sam.16)

    The context for them is the verse of discussion.

    FOR MY LOINS ARE FILLED WITH A LOATHSOME DISEASE: AND THERE IS NO SOUNDNESS IN MY FLESH. (verse 7)

    Good day.
     
  14. ituttut

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    What is David referring to when he says his "loins are filled with a loathsome disease?" </font>[/QUOTE]Hello Gershom - It seems to me David is speaking of a result of some action, sin/s; he is now paying the consequence. I believe this is a bodily sin, perhaps Bath-Sheba, for he is having pain (arrows), and it is continuous and deep inside (presseth).

    There is no tone to his body(soundness of flesh “muscle”), and he must be very tired, with no desires, which is a worrisome thing.

    I believe David is presently in the throws of bodily chastisement, asking for mercy, and no need for God to follow up verbally. David knows what he has done stinks to high heaven, and realizes his foolishness, his sins.

    He uses the word “soundness” of his flesh twice. I believe he pinpoints the location in verse seven. The “tone”, or the “hardness” is no longer there. Talk about “pay back time”! Here is retribution with a capital “P”; Break the Law, and pay the Penalty, which I believe is characteristically pain in a similar way. I believe “sin” pains God, and He will repay, regardless of the person that sins, and the person will be repaid in like manner.

    This lion is not roaring, and he knows why. He is asking God to restore him as before. He is repenting of those sins of covetness and lust, of stealing a man’s wife, of committing adultery. Shedding of man’s blood is yet to come. David is saved at this time, but knows he must repent and ask God not to forsake him. He must as that is what God requires in David's time.

    I’m going beyond what you ask here and entering into another realm, which to me shows how David was saved, and how we today are saved, pointing to two gospels. One salvation requires something from man other than faith, and one requires only faith of what God offers.

    As I believe Paul when He says Christ gave him a dispensational gospel, I see David must endure until the end. In verse 21 David asks the Lord God to not leave him, and not forsake him. What Christ from heaven revealed to Paul for both Gentile and Jew is ”… Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house”, Acts 16:31. And then in Colossians 1:13-14, ”Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son: 14. In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins.” Christ tells Paul today it is a done deal. We are Once Saved Always Saved. In all of the Bible, no place but after Damascus Road and to the Rapture is this message found. ” 8. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9. Not of works, lest any man should boast”, Ephesians 2:8-9.

    Thanks for bringing this interesting question to the forefront. Christian faith, ituttut Galatians 1:11-12.
     

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