Have you ever heard someone say that with all the manuscript evidence, we have about 98% of the original writings? I have. I do not think that is a true statement though. In fact, as a non-KJVO, I totally reject it. I would say that we have about 102%. That extra 2% is due to the variations found between all the witnesses. For example, one manuscript says: Jesus wept. Another says: and Jesus wept. Still another says: then Jesus wept. Our Bibles (all of them to my knowledge) contains: Jesus wept. Now, what do we do with the manuscripts that contain: then and and? Whichever one you use, absolutely nothing changes. Only one can be correct. We all agree on the "Jesus wept" part. So, when we talk about the percentage of the writings that we have today, isn't it more likely that we have more rather than less?