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Husband of one Wife

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by OSAS, Mar 12, 2005.

  1. OSAS

    OSAS Member

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    1 Timothy 3:2 "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"

    No polygamy? Or no divorce?

    Something I still struggle with, both sides of the coin have an equal pull on me. Am I missing something?
     
  2. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Many different views on the phrase "one woman man"

    Perhaps Paul best clarifies what he means when he reverses the phrase in 5:9

    "A widow is to be put on the list only if she is not less than sixty years old, having been the wife of one man." (1 Timothy 5: 9 NAS)

    Rob
     
  3. just-want-peace

    just-want-peace Well-Known Member
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    So if the widow had her first husband to die when she was 30, she remarried at 40, & second husband died when she was 70, then she is NOT entitled to "be put on the list"?

    Sumpin' ain't kosher here!
     
  4. Thankful

    Thankful <img src=/BettyE.gif>

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    I interpret this to be that a woman has to have been married at least once to be a widow. It does not say that she cannot be married more than once.
     
  5. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Question: "No polygamy? Or no divorce?"

    My pastor says "no polygamy".
    I say "no divorce".
    But the clergy is usualy more liberal than
    us folks in the pew [​IMG]

    Of course, my church practices that no one
    will be ordained unless they have a wife.
    (i.e. single men will NOT be ordained).
     
  6. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Its backwards around here (except at the bigger churchs), Ed.

    Let me ask you what you think about this: Can a man serve as a deacon or pastor if his wife has been married before and was divorced due to him cheating on her? The man has never been married except to her? Just curious.
     
  7. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    i've laid hands on 4 men who married women
    who had been divorced. The requirement is for
    the deacon not the wife. The requirement
    is for a "one woman man" not a "one woman
    man married to a one man womon".

    BTW, both my wife and i are married to
    a second spouse due to the death of the first.
     
  8. mountainrun

    mountainrun New Member

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    The literal translation is "one woman man."
    The word "divorce"is used elswhere in the new testament, but not here.
    Polygamy is definitely ruled out by the literal Greek.
    Divorce is not.
    The man must simply not be a womanizer.

    The widow must not have been prone to moving from man to man, the literal meaning being "a one man woman."

    Anything beyond this is one's own opinion and not supported by scripture.

    MR
     
  9. PastorSBC1303

    PastorSBC1303 Active Member

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    It simply means a one woman man....to put divorce in there is to add to the text.
     
  10. dianetavegia

    dianetavegia Guest

    Sorry fellas... one woman means ONE not one at a time. That's adding to scripture too.
     
  11. Soulman

    Soulman New Member

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    quoted by dianetavegia: Sorry fellas... one woman means ONE not one at a time. That's adding to scripture too.

    It's a matter of interpretation of the verse. I believe that if there ever was a gray area it is here. I know of divorced and remarried christians living victorious lives. Our church takes it on a case by case basis. :cool:
     
  12. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Do YOU have a problem if the pastor's wife has been divorced? Especially if her first divorce was due to her ex-husbands infidelity?
     
  13. dianetavegia

    dianetavegia Guest

    Yes I do. Infidelity is not the unforgiveable sin.
     
  14. OSAS

    OSAS Member

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    Now there is an answer I can actually go with!

    One of these days I am gonna start looking right under my nose for the answer. I have a feeling I will find it there most of the time. [​IMG]
     
  15. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Let me clarify what you are saying, maybe I don't understand:

    There is a man who has never been married before.

    He marries a wife who has been married before and divorced (before the man in (1) met her.

    The cause of the divorce was infidelity on the woman's first husband's part. (Not hers).

    Are you saying the man in part (1) cannot become a pastor because his wife has been married before? If so what is your Biblical basis?

    Thanks,
     
  16. dianetavegia

    dianetavegia Guest

    Mt 5:32 But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.

    Mt 19:9 And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery."

    Mr 10:11 So He said to them, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her.

    Mr 10:12 And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery."

    Lu 16:18 Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery.

    Ro 7:3 So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.

    Matthew 18:21 Then Peter came to Him and said, "Lord, how often shall my brother sin against me, and I forgive him? Up to seven times?" 22 Jesus said to him, "I do not say to you, up to seven times, but up to seventy times seven.
     
  17. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Diane, you are pretty much wrong here! (That was my gracious way of pussyfooting around the issue).

    Those who contend I Tim 3 says "one woman man" are 100% accurate. To make this deal with divorce is adding to Scripture.

    The issue of polygamy/monogamy was one hundred times more vital in the early church than divorce.

    And the "exception" clause of Jesus (and later Paul expanding it to include not just sexual sin, but abandonment) makes divorce a bad-but-allowed reality in the church.

    As it is today. Many churches have been beaten with the "divorce is the unpardonable sin" (never in those words, but to that effect). It will take another generation of Bible students to study and say "Wait a minute - that isn't in the Bible".

    Just like my generation was taught "alcohol" was a sin. Now my students are saying "That isn't in the Bible. Who came up with THAT interpretation??"

    Exciting to see folks getting into the BIBLE and not the popular hobby horses and whipping boys of big-name pastors.
     
  18. dianetavegia

    dianetavegia Guest

    Dr. Bob, what if the husband only had 'one' instance of adultery and repented, begging for forgiveness and the wife refused, divorced him and then married this pastor? How can this pastor and his 'wife' shepherd and guide people to forgive others if she has a spirit of unforgiveness. Also, if she will not forgive those who sinned against her,

    Matt. 6:14 "For if you forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you. 15 But if you do not forgive men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.
     
  19. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    It is up to each church to examine the pastor/wife and see if they will work. I'd sure be hesitant (with the few facts given) to have them pastor my church!! :(
     
  20. Pitipat

    Pitipat New Member

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    Let me pose a question.
    Can a bachelor be a Bishop[Pastor)? He is not or has never been the husband of one (1) wife.
     
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