Read this scripture I Cor 14:1-33 in the KJV please. Then let me know what you think about my questions. I ask only one thing. When you reply, dont use quotes. Just type #1. #2. #3. ect.... and put your answers after the #'s. This will keep the page count low, and allow for us to just see your response to the question. Not your "vain janglings" (I Tim 1:5-6) and misquotes. Ok, I trust you read all the scripture from the KJV as required. Question #1. This is an application to speaking in tongues. I beleive for example the KJV and the NIV are different tongues. Can or is this an applicable scriptural proof to One-Versionism? Question #2. "If" my above statement is true? Does vs. 4a not tell us using different tongues (versions) only "edifies himself" (yourself/ourself)? Question #3. "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does vs. 4b & 5 tell us to prophesy (teach?) in one tongue? And then to interpret to the church? And this will edify the Church? Question #4. "If" my above statement(s) are true? Do vs. 6 tell us that if we speak in tongues (versions) that it will not profit the Church? Question #5. "If" my above statement(s) are true? Using the end of vs. 6 it tells us "except I shall speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine?" Vs. 7 compares the pipe and the harp (diff. tongues/version reference) at it tells us we will not be able to know the difference. Does this tell us we will not know the revaltion, knowledge, prophesying or "DOCTRINE" if we speak in tongues? Question #6. "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does vs. 8 tell us again we will not understand the tongues (versions). And more import, we will not be ready for War? Is War a reference to our Spiritual Battle? Question #7. "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does vs. 9 again tell us not to speak in tongues easy to understand. Is this a refernce to say the NJKV? Is this not a tongue (version) created to be easily understood? Question #8. I am going to stop at this point. I may pick up vs.10-32 in a later forum. The last question will go to vs. 33. "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does tongues (version) create confusion. I will make one point. A KJV stance does not cause confusion! But speaking in tongues (versions) as stated by this scripture does cause confusion? Can you give a Verse to state otherwise?