Claims that the bible is infallible are usually proof-texted with 2 Timothy 3:16. (KJV version below) Looking at even the exact text, I fail to see how the above passage shows that the bible is infallible. First, it claims that all scripture is given by inspiration of God. The implication here is that God inspired the authors of scripture to write. Nowhere does it say that everything the authors of scripture wrote or said is accurate. It then says that all scripture is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction and for instruction in righteousness. There are many examples of teaching materials that are not literally correct (every single parable is on that list) but that make useful teaching materials. Whether this is because they make useful simplifications or are simply what the recipient is ready to hear, teaching materials do not have to be strictly accurate. Yet this does not mean that they are not good teaching materials and can not be used for the purposes outlined. So where does 2 Timothy 3:16 provide anything other than tangental support for biblical infallibility?