I'm Curious...

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by Rubato 1, Jun 10, 2008.

  1. Rubato 1

    Rubato 1
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    If the Bible is perfect, why doesn't the NT quote the OT exactly every time? Which wording is better, the NT or the OT wording? can both be 'perfect' if they are different? How do we know what was really said?
     
  2. robycop3

    robycop3
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    Some are from language differences; others are simply saying the same thing with different words, I. E. "I have a fast red car, my car is fast and red, I have a red car that is fast, etc." That's why it's so silly to try to LIMIT GOD to just one version.
     
  3. MNJacob

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    Most of the differences can be attributed to quoting the Septuagint as opposed to quoting a Hebrew source.
     
  4. Ed Edwards

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    I consider my answer to your question to be the logical Axiom from which my signature/trailer logically proceeds.

    God's Written Word is correct in all it's forms.

    If there appears to be any conflict within one book of God's Written Word or between two books of God's Written Word - it is NOT God's fault. Most likely it is a human misunderstanding.
     
  5. John of Japan

    John of Japan
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    First of all, note that the NT quotes the Septuagint most of the time when quoting the OT. This was an existing Greek translation of the Hebrew OT. Evidently the sacred writers of the NT, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, saw no reason not to use the existing translation when it made their point. It was a pretty literal translation (sometimes too literal), and had the occasional translation error, but all in all met the need of the Jewish people for a Greek Bible. This should give us great confidence in our translations: God can and does speak to us through a translation.

    Secondly, sometimes the sacred writers do their own translation from the Hebrew when the point they need to make isn't quite clear from the Septuagint. This to me emphasizes the authority of the original languages. When our translation is not quite accurate, there is no second phase of inspiration that empowers the translation over the originals. Any secular, professional translator knows this. There are exceptions (movie subtitles, some kinds of literature, etc.), but an honest translator realizes that he must translate as close as possibly to the original. This is particularly true in diplomacy and business (I've done business translations and checked those of others)--and why should the secular world have higher standards than we do?

    As a side note, you say, "Why doesn't the NT quote the OT exactly every time?" This would be impossible, since the OT original is Hebrew and the NT original is Greek. These are two very different languages. For example, the Greek has a far more complicated verb system than the Hebrew. So the goal of the NT writer was to communicate the truth of the OT passage in the best way he could. There is no way to make a Greek quote exactly equivalent to a Hebrew original. It's just impossible, because of the nature of language!

    For an example of how God looks at translation, compare the inspired translation of the Aramaic phrase Talitha kumi in Mark 5:41 and Luke 8:54. The translations are slightly different, but both are valid translations of the original Aramaic.
     
  6. stilllearning

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    Hi Rubato 1

    You asked.........
    One reason that hadn’t been mentioned yet, is the fact that there is more “light”(understanding), in the New Testament;
    Therefore sometimes, when the they seem to disagree with each other, it’s only because God is giving us more information.
     
  7. mcdirector

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    You are so wise.

    (I first said you are so smart! - but I was afraid someone would take that the wrong way. - I knew you wouldn't , but I was afraid some other person might ;) )
     
  8. tinytim

    tinytim
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    OH BROTHER>.. now you are going to give him a big head!!!

    Good answers so far, and thanks John... that was enlightening!
     
  9. exscentric

    exscentric
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    Quote:
    Originally Posted by robycop3
    Some are from language differences; others are simply saying the same thing with different words, I. E. "I have a fast red car, my car is fast and red, I have a red car that is fast, etc." That's why it's so silly to try to LIMIT GOD to just one version.


    You are so wise.

    I don't know I thought he was being a little upitty with all that bragging about his fast car! :thumbs:
     
  10. robycop3

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    Well, actually, I don't have a fast red car, nor a fast car that is red, nor a red car that is fast, nor a car that's red & fast, nor a car that is fast & red.

    I have an average-speed white car that I drive fast, & several Demolition Derby cars.

    MEANWHILE, BACK AT THE RANCH...

    I believe GOD caused us to use the languages we now do, which are quite different from those in which He gave His word to men, & therefore He caused translations of His word in current language to be available to us. After all, He wants His word to be KNOWN, not kept secret. And if His word isn't in CURRENT language, it's not fully understandable to the average reader of that language, is it?
     
  11. John of Japan

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    I fully believe that all the answers about the Bible are in the Bible. We just haven't looked hard enough yet! The answers are there about: translation methods, translations, preservation, etc. Most are just satisfied to find a proof text or two, and then stick with that. As the old country song says, "Dig a little deeper." :type:
     

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