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inconsistent later editing of KJV

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Logos1560, Oct 28, 2004.

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  1. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Later editors of the KJV updated some spelling
    in their editions and made other corrections including some word changes. They overlooked
    some places which they updated in other verses.
    Considering the number of words in the KJV, that
    is understandable in the 1700 and 1800's.

    Below are some examples of inconsistency in the editing that led up to most present KJV editions. The American Bible Society present-day
    edition of the KJV corrected most if not all of these inconsistencies.

    The 1611 had "neesed" at 2 Kings 4:35 which was updated to "sneezed" while "neesings" was
    kept at Job 41:18.

    The 1611 had "flotes" at 1 Kings 5:9 which was updated to "floats" while "flotes" remained at 2 Chronicles 2:16.

    The 1611 had "sith" at Jeremiah 23:28 which was changed to "since" while "sith" remained at Ezekiel 35:6.

    The 1611 had "whiles" (Psalm 49:18, Isaiah 65:24) which are changed to "while." "Whiles" is kept at other verses.

    The 1611 had the spelling "loathe" 7 times, but four of them were changed to the older spelling "lothe" in lather editions (Exod. 7:18,
    Jer. 14:19, Ezek. 6:9, Zech. 11:8).

    The 1611's spelling "lien" at some verses
    (Jud. 21:11, Job 3:13, John 11:17) was updated to "lain" while "lien" was kept at other verses (Gen. 26:10, Ps. 68:13, Jer. 3:2).

    The 1611's "fetcht" at three verses (2 Sam. 14:2, 2 Kings 3:9, 2 Chron. 1:17) was updated to "fetched" while "fetcht" was kept at Genesis 18:7.

    The 1611's "stript" at several verses (Exod. 33:6, etc.) was updated to "stripped" while it
    was kept at Genesis 37:23.
     
    #1 Logos1560, Oct 28, 2004
  2. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Let's face it. The KJV is changing as it can be updated. This is another example of the KJVo myth being worthless. There is NO single KJV1611 that is being used today. There ARE many versions of perfectly good KJVs floating around (primarily Oxford or later) which have been improved greatly.

    It is so sad that the KJVo crowd has made their very own translation "suspect" to the general public; when all of us know that a KJV is a perfectly decent translation.
     
    #2 Phillip, Oct 28, 2004
  3. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Hence the conclusion that no two revisions/editions of the KJV are identical. And only ONE can be correct/right/perfect/pure, all others must (by defintion) be incorrect.

    Sure hope YOU got one of the good ones!!
     
    #3 Dr. Bob, Oct 28, 2004
  4. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    "Things that are different are not the same...unless it's convenient for my KJVO doctrine!"
     
    #4 robycop3, Oct 28, 2004
  5. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    By the way, the KJV edition for which I was giving the present KJV spelling or rendering
    was the Oxford edition in the Scofield Reference Bible. This is the same edition that D. A. Waite used for his comparison of the 1611 KJV and today's KJV.

    Would KJV-only advocates complain that today's KJV updated the spelling of "pray" at several
    verses (Esther 8:11, 9:15, Job 4:11, etc.) to
    "prey?"

    The present-day KJV edition published by the American Bible Society updates the spelling of
    many words. Some of the updatings can be found in ABS editions published in the early 1800's.

    Some examples found in at 1846 edition are the following:

    "subtile" for "subtil" (Gen. 3:1)
    "assuaged" for "asswaged" (Gen. 8:1)
    "a husbandman" for "an husbandman" (Gen. 9:20)
    "mortar" for "morter" (Gen. 11:3)
    "grizzled" for "grisled" (Gen. 31:10)
    "aught" for "ought" (Gen. 39:6)
    "raven" for "ravin" (Gen. 49:27)
    "loathe" for "lothe" (Exod. 7:18)
    "rye" for "rie" (Exod. 9:32)
    "strewed" for "strawed" (Exod. 32:20)
    "clothes" for "cloths" (Exod. 35:19)
    "cleft" for "clift" (Exod. 33:22)
     
    #5 Logos1560, Oct 29, 2004
  6. TC

    TC Active Member
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    Funny, you start showing some facts about the varying editions of the KJV and the KJVO's seem to disappear. [​IMG]
     
    #6 TC, Oct 29, 2004
  7. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    KJV-only advocates do seem to avoid discussing facts.
     
    #7 Logos1560, Nov 6, 2004
  8. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    Do you think it is because some people cannot face the truth and would rather believe a lie. Doesn't that kind of sound like the kid who holds his hands over his ears because he doesn't want to hear what you have to say and instead believe what you know is not the truth.
     
    #8 gb93433, Nov 6, 2004
  9. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Other examples of inconsistent editing in later editions of the KJV could be found.

    For example, later editors changed some
    1611 renderings "stablished" at some verses
    (examples Lev. 25:30, Deut. 19:15, 1 Sam. 20:31) to "established" while "stablished" was left
    at some other verses.

    Later editors changed the use of "an" before
    some words beginning with "h" in the 1611 in
    some places to "a" while leaving "an" in
    many other places ["an half the breadth" (Exod. 25:10) changed to "a half the breadth"; "an house" (Lev. 14:55) changed to "a house"] and while also changing some places from "a" to "an" ["a hundred" changed to "an hundred" (Exod. 38:9); "a hole" changed to "an hole" (Exod. 39:23); "a hand" changed to "an hand" (Exod. 19:13); "a house" changed to "an house" (1 Chron. 17:15)].

    Later editors changed some 1611's renderings
    "such a one" (Ps. 50:21, Ps. 68:21) to "such an one" while leaving "such a one" at some other verses.
     
    #9 Logos1560, Nov 8, 2004
  10. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Do you think it is because some people cannot face the truth and would rather believe a lie. Doesn't that kind of sound like the kid who holds his hands over his ears because he doesn't want to hear what you have to say and instead believe what you know is not the truth. </font>[/QUOTE]It is absolutely true that the KJVo disappear.

    They disappear when asked "which of the KJV's are the correct one?"

    They disappear when asked "what was the letter perfect Bible was before 1611?"

    These are among a few of the questions they disappear on. I have YET to hear a response, except maybe one, "that there is hardly any difference between the 1611 and the Oxford", although this is a poor answer for someone who believes in a word perfect translaion. [​IMG]
     
    #10 Phillip, Nov 8, 2004
  11. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    More inconsistent editing of later editions of
    the KJV:

    "Pluckt" was changed to "plucked" (1 Chron. 11:23, Ezra 9:3, Neh. 13:25, Job 29:17) while
    "pluckt" remained at Genesis 8:11.

    "Burnt" was changed to "burned" at many
    verses [one example--1 Sam. 30:1) while "burnt"
    was left at other verses [one example--1 Sam. 31:12).

    "Mixt" was revised to "mixed" at some verses (Prov. 23:30, Isa. 1:22, Dan. 2:43) while "mixt"
    was kept at Numbers 11:4 in most present KJV's.
    The Cambridge Standard Text Edition has changed
    "mixt" at Numbers 11:4 to "mixed."

    At 1 Samuel 17:48, "hasted" was revised or updated to "hastened" while "hasted" was left at several other verses.

    The many inconsistencies in the updating or editing in many later KJV editions show that KJV-only complaints about other KJV editions that update more spelling or that make the spelling more consistent are invalid.
     
    #11 Logos1560, Nov 17, 2004
  12. Liz Ward

    Liz Ward New Member

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    I've had a rabid KJVO insist most vehemently that stablished means something different to established. He was totally unable to tell me what the difference was.

    Liz
    Liz
     
    #12 Liz Ward, Nov 17, 2004
  13. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    Less than worthess. It's a lie straight from from the pits of hell perpetuated by the tongue of the ignorant.

    James 3:6, "And the tongue is a fire, the very world of iniquity; the tongue is set among our members as that which defiles the entire body, and sets on fire the course of our life, and is set on fire by hell."
     
    #13 gb93433, Nov 17, 2004
  14. Dogsbody

    Dogsbody New Member

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    Oooooooooo! Corrected,updated spelling inconsistant at the hand of man! Oooooooo! :eek:
     
    #14 Dogsbody, Nov 17, 2004
  15. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Jesus brought it down to the spelling.
    "jots" and "tittles"?

    Found only in the Hebrew.

    I know that you know this but Hebrew is not English, therefore He was not speaking about the 1611 AV.

    HankD
     
    #15 HankD, Nov 18, 2004
  16. Dogsbody

    Dogsbody New Member

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    And Paul made an issue out of the letter “s”.

    So no need to make such a fuss about unintentional human errors such as spelling,typesetting, inconsistencies in such caused by lack of skill, dyslexia, poor eyesight, or what ever else and then to believe you have some sect on the run because you’re such witty fellows. Ooooooooo :eek:
     
    #16 Dogsbody, Nov 18, 2004
  17. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Evidently, this person had not compared the
    1611 KJV to present KJV editions. It is not surprising that he was unable to tell the difference between the two words. He would
    also probably be unable to explain why later editors of the KJV changed the word in some places but not in others, sometimes in consecutive
    verses.

    1 Chron. 17:11
    stablish his kingdom (1611)
    establish his kingdom (today's KJV)

    1 Chron. 17:12
    stablish his throne (1611 & today's KJV)
     
    #17 Logos1560, Nov 18, 2004
  18. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    That would seem to be the case when almost all of the NT quotations of OT passages in the KJV do not agree word for word and are sometimes considerably different.

    Also, it is not my desire to "have you on the run".

    HankD
     
    #18 HankD, Nov 18, 2004
  19. Dogsbody

    Dogsbody New Member

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    It is my understanding the differences come from translating the OT from Hebrew and the NT quotations from Greek in the KJV.

    That’s a relief, especially since I do not belong to a sect. :D
     
    #19 Dogsbody, Nov 18, 2004
  20. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    It is my understanding the differences come from translating the OT from Hebrew and the NT quotations from Greek in the KJV.</font>[/QUOTE] It is also direct, internal evidence that the KJV is not "word for word" perfect and that a "word for word" facsimile is not necessary to perfectly express the Word of God.
     
    #20 Scott J, Nov 18, 2004
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