I do not want this to turn into a KJVO debate. Mods, please feel free to move this to the Bible versions forum if you deem appropriate. I am posting it here, since me question is more theological in nature. This Sunday I am beginning to teach a class on the Bible (how we got the Bible, overview, intepretation, etc). There is a question I am anticipating on inerrancy (or mostly for my own satisfaction). Most statements on inerrancy will say that only the original autographs are inerrant. Why is this qualification necessary? What are some examples in the copied manuscripts that are shown to be errant? Are they simply in some mistyped numerical values like in the O.T.? Or are there more significant errors in the copies? Is there any good reading material on this subject via the internet? Thanks for your help.