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Is divorce and remarriage permissible for Christians?

Discussion in 'Free-For-All Archives' started by Carson Weber, Apr 16, 2002.

  1. Briguy

    Briguy <img src =/briguy.gif>

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    HI Carson, Maybe this has been addressed and I missed it but when you read the verse that you have quoted over and over it says to me that whoever does the divorcing is the one that commits aldultery. He who divorcres his wife and marries another commits aldultery. If my wife leaves me some day(won't happen because I am such a great catch :D ) she would be divorcing me therefore, by this verse, SHE would be commiting aldultery if she got married again, not me, if I re-married because I did not do the divorcing I would be OK. Now as read literally that is what the verse says. In fact it is written from both male and female perspectives, which would not be needed if it was speaking of both parties automatically being aldulterers upon re-marrying. Now, read it that way and it seems to support Pauls teachings. You wanted some Biblical reasoning and there it is. I have taken the verse for exactly what it says, which is actually more then anyone else has done. ;)

    As for anullment. My stomach turns to think of a husband and wife sharing EVERYTHING for years and then having a priest say, By the power invested in me I pronounce this was never a marriage. I am just guesing what a priest may say. I am only making a argument and hope I am not being disrespectful. I mean not to offend anyone in the least
    In Christian love and truth,
    Brian

    [ April 22, 2002, 11:42 AM: Message edited by: The Briguy ]
     
  2. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    On this issue of annulment I would simply say that here is the appearance: A priest will perform a marriage ceremony under the laws of the land and will in the sight of God pronounce this couple duly married. So long as they consent to live together, they will be considered married. However, should one wish to depart and the appropriate parties find a valid reason for annulment, the marriage is declared to have been invalid and therefore never a marriage. Never mind that for the duration of the marriage, it was considered one by the church and the state. Only when problems arise do we think to look and see if it was invalid. What if during the marriage, the church told a man and wife who were contented to live together that they found their marriage to be invalid? Would that couple then be forced to separate?

    Children born during the "non-marriage" are not considered illegitimate by some quirk of logic. Their parents were not married but they are not illegitimate. Hmmm ...

    After the annulment, somoene can get remarried.

    So the bottom line is this. It is better to live in an adulterous "non-marriage" than to seek a divorce. For after the former you can get remarried; after the latter you cannot.

    This is horribly inconsistent with Scripture and logic. It makes no sense. But millions buy it because "the church said so and we know she can't be wrong."
     
  3. LadyEagle

    LadyEagle <b>Moderator</b> <img src =/israel.gif>

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    Briguy, you are exactly right.

    I notice Carson didn't answer about my scenarios, either.

    In all three scenarios, there is an innocent mate. The adulterous spouse would have been stoned under Old Testament Law, thus the wronged spouse would have been widowed, free to remarry. You can't commit adultery if your spouse is dead. Under the New Testament, Jesus doesn't hold the innocent mate to bondage. Paul says the innocent mate is free, not bound.
     
  4. Carson Weber

    Carson Weber <img src="http://www.boerne.com/temp/bb_pic2.jpg">

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    Hi Brian,

    You wrote, "over and over it says to me that whoever does the divorcing is the one that commits adultery. He who divorcres his wife and marries another commits aldultery. If my wife leaves me some day(won't happen because I am such a great catch :D ) she would be divorcing me therefore, by this verse, SHE would be commiting aldultery if she got married again, not me, if I re-married because I did not do the divorcing I would be OK.

    I quoted one part of the larger response of Jesus in Mark 10. Here's the entire dialogue, which involves Jesus, his disciples, and the Pharisees in 10:2-10:

    ---
    And Pharisees came up and in order to test him asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?"

    He answered them, "What did Moses command you?"

    They said, "Moses allowed a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to put her away."

    But Jesus said to them, "For your hardness of heart he wrote you this commandment. But from the beginning of creation, `God made them male and female.' For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.' So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder."

    And in the house the disciples asked him again about this matter.

    And he said to them, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another, commits adultery against her; and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery."
    ---

    If Jesus is allowing for the wife or the husband who doesn't actually do the "divorcing" to remarry, then he's tearing down with one hand what he builds up with the other.

    Jesus' major premise is based on the Scripture, "a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh," and Jesus explains the Scripture by saying, "So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder."

    The basis of the concise passage I quoted in my post above rests upon Jesus' previous premise that there's not two parties involved after a marriage, but one, and this union cannot be sundered.

    This is why, after a divorce, there's adultery: because there's still a marital union that cannot be sundered.

    For your interpretation to work, the union would have to exist for the one who "divorces" (therefore, any further remarriage results in the sin of adultery) while at the same time no union still exists for the innocent party. This leaves us with a union, while simultaneously, the lack of a union. This is quite an irreconcilable conundrum.

    God bless,

    Carson

    [ April 22, 2002, 05:52 PM: Message edited by: Carson Weber ]
     
  5. Briguy

    Briguy <img src =/briguy.gif>

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    Hey Carson, Thanks for responding to my post. I was guessing you would respond the way you did. I do understand the premise and how you come to your conclusions. Rather then rehash the same argument I thought I would share something. When Jesus says what God has joined together let no man put asunder I had for years thought that was directed at the world interfering with a marriage when all along I believe that "let no man put asunder" is being addressed to the two people getting married, calling for them not to mess up their own marriage.
    Carson, we both esteem marriage very high. My parents got divorced when I was 9 and I know all to well the pain that goes with divorce and why God said not to mess up your marriage. It is a very serious thing and divorce should be avoided if at all possible. Whether you call it divorce or anullment, it will cause pain and take people away from giving glory and praise to God.

    Take care, In Christian Love,
    Brian
     
  6. Carson Weber

    Carson Weber <img src="http://www.boerne.com/temp/bb_pic2.jpg">

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    Hi Brian,

    You wrote, "When Jesus says what God has joined together let no man put asunder I had for years thought that was directed at the world interfering with a marriage when all along I believe that "let no man put asunder" is being addressed to the two people getting married, calling for them not to mess up their own marriage."

    We should also take note of the preceding statement to "let no man put asunder", which is, "the two shall become one flesh ... they are no longer two but one flesh." The major premise is that one flesh now exists, not two, but one.

    God bless,

    Carson
     
  7. Briguy

    Briguy <img src =/briguy.gif>

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    Thanks Carson, I agree that the two become one flesh. It is a very important union. I still see biblical evidence that there are situations where once the one flesh is severed that a person can join with another. Speaking of that argument. What about the verse that says that a person who is IN Christ (a true believer that is) gets grafted into Jesus (the tree or vine, I am blanking on the actual verse but I know the premise. Anyway, you do believe that once grafted into Jesus you can seperate yourself from him but you do not believe that once a husband and a wife are joined (grafted into eachother)they can never become ungrafted. The logic there is confusing.

    Also, I am puzzled by the question of legitimate births from anulled marriages. Did Pastor Larry have that right?

    Thanks so much for your posts!

    In Christ,
    Brian
     
  8. Carson Weber

    Carson Weber <img src="http://www.boerne.com/temp/bb_pic2.jpg">

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    Hi Brian,

    You may be thinking of Rom. 11, where Paul is speaking to Gentile converts, admonishing them for their boasting.

    I would point out that you're mixing metaphors: (1)Christ as the vine & (2)two individuals becoming one flesh. Christ is married to the Church, which is an inseparable union on the metaphysical level of things, yet one can be grafted into or out of the Church (Rom 11). However, the Church is one flesh w/ Christ.. so identifiable that it's the "Body of Christ".

    Regarding Pastor Larry's comment, yes, children born from a marriage that is later annulled are legitimate for the same reason that children born out of a marriage between an unbeliever (unbaptized) individual and a believer (baptized) individual are legitimate (which is the same type of "marriage" - not sacramental - that the annulled marriage was). That is, a non-Christian-marriage in the eyes of God (sacramental), yet a marriage in the eyes of the positive law.

    Legitimate means "lawfully begotten", and this is dependent upon the positive law, not metaphysical realities.

    God bless,

    Carson

    [ April 23, 2002, 08:45 PM: Message edited by: Carson Weber ]
     
  9. Briguy

    Briguy <img src =/briguy.gif>

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    Hi Carson, You wrote:
    "I would point out that you're mixing metaphors: (1)Christ as the vine & (2)two individuals becoming one flesh. Christ is married to the Church, which is an inseparable union on the metaphysical level of things, yet one can be grafted into or out of the Church (Rom 11). However, the Church is one flesh w/ Christ.. so identifiable that it's the "Body of Christ"."

    I think conceptually the same thing occurs. Jesus talks of us becoming one with him or being In him and he in us, as he and the father are one. I think it is John 17 I am talking about. The picture is the same, when I become a Christian I become one with Jesus, when I become a husband I become one with my wife. As I think you talked about marriage is used as an example of a persons relationship to the church, well OK actually it is used to show the relationship between Christ and the church, but I do not think I am stretching things too far based on John 17.
    I still see an inconsistancy in that marriage union is forever and union with Christ may not be.

    Also, thanks for the answer on anullment. I understand the position.

    In Christ,
    Brian
     
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