Is God settled on one Bible translation?

Be ye kind . . . Such an easy thing to not say what might be hurtful or just mean deliberately. It happens to all of us occasionally, but my goodness . . .

I also agree with "one version that is the version" part.

 

I wonder too about the scholarship of those fluent in biblical languages - which didn't end with any version, and I'm wondering why it can't be put to use in translating other versions. I've seen nothing in the Bible to prohibit repeated translations.

 

What language do you speak/write? English? If so, God provides you one Book in English, but you have many books. Will you ask Him which accurate one is that He provides you? God settled His Word in Heaven. He has His Book for you in English. You have the ONE Book from Him. Remember that many books are not same because of the copyrighted. Not only copyrighted, but many books disagree each other in a few thousand times. Will you ask Him that He provides you many Books, NOT one Book? If many books that He provides you are corrupted, you have the problem today. Too many books in English are worst than other countries. If I speak/write in French, do I need the ONE Book from God? It would be Olivetan Bible. If I speak/write in German, do I need the ONE Book from God? It would be Luther's Bible. Romans 16:26 said, "But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:"

 

Martin Luther himself made a number of revisions and changes in his own German translation during his lifetime so that it did not remain the same. All the editions of Luther's German Bible printed in Luther's lifetime are not 100% identical to each other.

Furthermore, after Luther's death, others have introduced changes and revisions[many spelling, some translational, and some even textual] into the German Bible. At times, different publishers were printing different and varying editions of Luther's German Bible.

In addition, there are also differences between Luther's German Bible and the KJV; differences where they both cannot be right.

 

Where do the Scriptures teach that God provides English-speaking believers only "one" translation in English?

Are you ignoring the facts? God provided one English transation in 1535. God provided another English translation in 1537. God provided [or permitted] another English translation in 1539. God provided another English translation in 1560. God provided [or permitted] another English translation in 1568. Do you claim that God did not provide the earlier English translations of which the KJV was a revision? Even though English-speaking believers already had a good English translation that they loved and read [the Geneva Bible], God provided [or permitted] another English translation in 1611. God did not stop permitting the making and revising of English translations in 1535 nor in 1611. God did not stop nor prevent the meaning of many words in the English language from changing so that no updatings would be needed.

You have not demonstrated that your KJV-only reasoning or assumptions are taught in the Scriptures.

 

Do you have Bible support for these two versions, or is this your human opinion?

Why is it that godly people who have Bible evidence for everything else they believe have no Bible evidence for supporting a particular translation? Why is opinion good enough on this doctrine and this doctrine only?

 

Why waste our time dealing with the un-biblical logic of Biblical onlyism? There are no verses to back up thier position that there is only "one" English version. Yet, they continue to elevate their opinion and preference to scripture itself. They can't even agree on the KJV itself as even it exists in different versions. Surely before they can expect anyone to take their position seriously they need to agree on just "one" version of even the KJV. But, mostly they ignore this problem with their position. Instead when they can't back up their position, as evidenced in their thread, he turns to sailing insults our way in his schooner.

 

James 1:21-24, "Therefore, putting aside all filthiness and all that remains of wickedness, in humility receive the word implanted, which is able to save your souls. But prove yourselves doers of the word, and not merely hearers who delude themselves. For if anyone is a hearer of the word and not a doer, he is like a man who looks at his natural face in a mirror; for once he has looked at himself and gone away, he has immediately forgotten what kind of person he was."

Outside of that if it were the case then Wycliffe Bible translators would not have a ministry.

 

So are you saying that Wycliffe Bible translators is wrong?

 

If you speak any other language than English I might suggest that God has certainly not settled on the KJV.

As for English, no definitely not.

 

One thing that you forget is the final authority. Were they?

 

Are you against Luther's Bible?

 

How you come up with your conclusions is puzzling Askjo.Logos mentioned facts.Luther's Bible went through some updates in his own lifetime as well as many more after his death.None of "Luther's Bibles" are identical.And none of them are the same as the KJVs even when translated.Why would you ask such a ______ question?It doesn't make any sense.Of course he isn't against "Luther's Bible".

 

Some would say that English is the standard. However for those who believe that must believe also that God had been dead until English arrived on the scene. I feel sorry for those folks who believe such a lie and would be so gullible.

 

The modern Greek Bible is different from the Greek at the time the NT was written.