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Is God settled on one Bible translation?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Keith M, Jan 31, 2009.

  1. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Go to your version and SHOW us by THAT verse that spells it out precisely that smoking tobacco will kill you!

    Are you suggesting that the Surgeon General knows more than God?:BangHead:
     
  2. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    You want to smoke and use the KJV, fine with me!:laugh:
     
  3. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    One man's 'standard' is another man's stumbling stone.
     
  4. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    Prov. 1:5-7. "A wise man will hear and increase in learning, And a man of understanding will acquire wise counsel, To understand a proverb and a figure, The words of the wise and their riddles. The fear of the Lord is the beginning of knowledge; Fools despise wisdom and instruction."
     
  5. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Salamander, we're still waiting for someone to produce even one verse that hints God is settled on one particular English Bible translation. None of the drivel you or Ehud have posted is pertinent to the topic of discussion - is God settled on a particular English Bible translation?

    :tonofbricks:
     
  6. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Another worthless straw man, Salamander. This drivel is so pathetic it doesn't deserve comment. It's definitely off topic. Try to stick with the topic for once, will you?

    First you commented "It certainly sets those who promote the MV's in array against those of us who are as settled as God is on which English version. I'd call that harm."

    Then, when you were asked to substantiate your claim with Scripture, you changed your position and ran like a scared puppy, saying "God has NEVER even suggested an English translation in His word!"

    You contradicted yourslef, Salamander. Did God indicate He was settled on one particular English translation or didn't He?

    Can you show us one Bible verse that even remotely hints that God is settled on one particular English Bible translation?

    Since you made the first comment, Salamander, you've been running and trying to avoid the issue. Please produce something to legitimize your claim or else admit your claim, like the rest of the KJVO position, is extra-biblical and manufactured by men. Of course many of us will be dead and buried before you admit to the truth. I truly believe truth is hidden from you.
     
  7. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Sal's cigarette just may burn his straw man if he isn't careful. :laugh:
     
  8. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Just read 1 Cor. 3:16-17, 6:19. God has given us the ability to know what is harmful, & shouldn't be brought into our bodies, which HE sez are TEMPLES. While tobacco wasn't known to the people of that time/place GOD wisely covered it in the verses I cited.

    Now, there's *NO* such implication supporting KJVO. That doctrine is entirely MAN-MADE. Betcha can't prove any differently!
     
  9. Abell

    Abell New Member

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    Using this same principle allow me to illustrate. The Bible clearly teaches that God cannot lie (Titus 1:2). Therefore any translation that claims the quote found Mark 1:2 is from Isaiah cannot be from God. That quote is found in Malachi as most footnotes acknowledge.

    Neither did Elhanan kill Goliah as many translations say he did. David killed Goliath. Therefore any translation that lies about who killed Goliath cannot be from God.

    There is no verse that claims the KJV to be the word of God, but through reasoning, we can determine the translations that are not.
     
  10. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    #70 Mexdeaf, Feb 5, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 5, 2009
  11. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    That quote was found in the scroll named by the major prophet Isaiah.
     
  12. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    What do you say about Matthew 27:9-10 where Matthew attributes the reading to "Jeremy" when it is also in Zechariah. I guess that's lying too?

    Oh, and ADDING words to the text is OK? Since "the brother of" is in italics, it's not inspired - it's not in the original languages. I'd say that's lying too.

    So since the KJV has lies in it, it's not from God. Right?
     
  13. BaptistLady02

    BaptistLady02 New Member

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    I don't think God is "settled" on any one Bible translation. I'd say that he approves of most of the mainstream Bibles out there. Of course, I believe that only the originals are totally inerrant.
     
  14. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Amen, Sister BaptistLady02! Preach it!
     
    #74 Keith M, Feb 6, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 6, 2009
  15. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    Don't go getting all scholarly on us now!!:laugh:

    Some folks are so narrow-minded it hurts them to think!
     
  16. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Others are so narrow-minded the truth can't possibly get through. In some cases, getting the truth through is like trying to drive a car through the tube paper towels are sold on. :laugh:
     
  17. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    Consider the ant.
     
  18. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Are you claiming that some old translations that are placed on the KJV-only view's line of good Bibles or stream of pure Bibles such as the Syriac Peshitta, the Old Latin Bible, and 1300's Wycliffe's Bible "cannot be from God?"
     
  19. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Are you implying that the Hebrew Masoretic text "cannot be from God?" The Hebrew Masoretic text does not have the words added in italics found in the KJV.
     
    #79 Logos1560, Feb 6, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 6, 2009
  20. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    You seem to be admitting that the KJV-only view rests on human reasoning. Is your reasoning entitled to the same respect as the statements or declarations of Scripture?
     
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