In Romans 4 and Ephesians 2 there are only two possible alternatives a the source of faith. Romans 4 contrasts grace versus works and concludes that justification is by grace and then says Abraham was justified by faith while denying he was justified by works and furthermore claiming justificaiton is by faith "without works." However, if justifying faith is "of works" then Paul is contradicting himself when says justification is "without works" when in fact it is by the work of faith. In Romans 4:16 he explicilty states the promise is obtained "of faith" that it might be (hina purpose clause) in according to (kata) grace as opposed to works. Ephesians 2:8 says we are saved by grace through faith and then he denies that works has any part of it as one first must be "created in Christ Jesus UNTO good works." So if it is admitted that saving or justifying faith is of grace then it must be admitted that the pronoun "It" and its clause "IT is a gift of God NOT of works lest any man should boast" means that faith must be included in "saved by grace". However, the real dilemma for those who deny that faith is a gift of grace is that they must either claim justifying faith is of works or of grace as it cannot be a mixture (Rom. 11:6) and there are no other contextual options given in scripture. Is faith the fruit of the Spirit or is it the fruit of the nature of fallen man? Jn 6:44 denies it is the fruit of the nature of fallen man. Is the "fruit of the Spirit" of grace or of works? If you are an Arminian, can you be honest enough to admit you believe faith is either of works or of grace? There are several passages that at least superficially appear to claim it is a gift of grace (Philip. 1:29; 2:13; Ephe. 2:8; Rom. 4:16) as Christ explicitly denies faith in Christ or coming to Christ in faith can originate with fallen man (Jn. 6:44 "no man CAN come to me") and that demands the source must be God.