Why did the translators of the King James Bible add the following words in "bold"?: "Now the first day [of the feast] of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?" (Mt.26:17; KJV). If this translation is righjt then we must believe that it was the first day of the feast of unleavened bread but at the same time the passover lamb had not yet been eaten! Of course the passover lamb was eaten PROR to the first day of the feast of unleavened bread: "In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread" (Lev.23:4-5). The passover was eaten on the 14th day of the month and the first day of the feast of unleavened bread did not begin until the 15th day. Here is the correct translation: "Now on the first day of Unleavened Bread the disciples came to Jesus and asked, "Where do You want us to prepare for You to eat the Passover?" (Mt.26:17; NASB).