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Is this a Bible?

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by Su Wei, Mar 6, 2005.

  1. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Su Wei: "May i ask, for i am ignorant, in which year did these Vulgate and Syriac manuscripts surface?"

    I don't have time to do your research for you this morning.
    I have to go to work. The Latin Vulgate Bible was the standerd
    in the remains of the western Roman Empire for over 1,000 years.
    The Syriac Bible was the standard for the Middle East
    for over 1,000 years and was
    the one burned with the Christians by the rise of the Mohammadans.
    These versions are NOT 'newly found'.

    Su Wei: "What's the inconsistency?"

    We were talking about the he/she problem in Ruth 3:15
     
  2. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    The KING JAMES ONLY CONTROVERASY by James R
    White, p13:

    //Over the 1,100 years folloing Jerome's
    publication of his Latin translation of the
    Bible, which became known as the Vulgate, his work
    became the most popular transalation in Europe.
    By the early 16th century the VULGATE was
    "everyone's Bible".//

    If the KJV is as good a translation as was
    the Vulgate, then the KJV will begin to
    wane in 2727 [​IMG]

    Here are a couple of influences of the Vulgate
    on the KJV. The primary author of the
    Greek sources sthat later became known
    for the New Testament as the Received Texts
    was the author Erasmus.

    1.The Johannine Comma (in 1 John 5:7):
    Erasmus used the Vulgate where this verse
    was located and NOT the Greek Marjority
    Text. Thus the Johannin Comma in the TRs
    and the KJVs is NOT found in the Greek Majority
    Texts.

    2. In Acts 9:15 the phrase "it is hard
    for thee to kick against the pricks" is not
    vound in the Greek Majority Texts. The
    phrase is found in the Vulgate version
    of Acts 26. Because both are the testiomny
    of Paul concerning his converstion, Erasmus
    added the phrase at Acts 9:15. Most of
    Acts 9:16 also comes from the Vulgate.

    Thus a good portion of Acts 9:15-16 comes
    from the Vulgate into the TRs and the
    KJVs but is not found in the Majority
    family of Greek texts.
     
  3. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    In 1762 the Church of England came out with
    a new version of the King James Version bible -
    every book had tax for the king of England.
    In 1769 the Church of England came out with
    a new version of the King James Version bible -
    every book had tax for the king of England.
    By 1776 the colonies were in full revolt.
    Part of the revolt was that the colonists
    printed their own versions of the King James
    Bible which were NOT authorized by the
    King of England (but most of which said
    'Authorized Version' (AV) on them.
    Collectively I call them the "KJV1769 Edition".
     
  4. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    No problem.
    I guess Mr Ed the talking horse may not make
    it's reruns run all round the world :confused:
     
  5. Su Wei

    Su Wei Active Member
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    these however, do not cite as proofs that there was another translation work being done and then sold as the King James Version, as you propose?

    I note that if i limited myself to the KJV only that i'd not be able to figure out this
    strange inconsistancy (which makes no doctrinal
    difference).


    now, how does not being KJVo help you to "figure out this inconsistency"??? by reading the notes in the NIV?

    If the KJV is as good a translation as was
    the Vulgate, then the KJV will begin to
    wane in 2727


    On the contrary, i'm not surprised that that the readership of the KJV is on the decline, not because it is a bad translation, but because the bible says:

    "2 Timothy 4:3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
    2 Timothy 4:4 And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables."

    fables like the Refuel "bible" which capitulates towards the world and worldliness.

    as for the rest of your assertions, i'll be back.... [​IMG]
     
  6. Glory2God

    Glory2God New Member

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    Amen,sister!!! I have a hard time taking this guy seriously!!!! [​IMG]
    [Image too large for posting per board rules. You may use the link below to access it. Thank you.}
    http://eded.tripod.com/larry.jpg

    [ March 11, 2005, 10:38 AM: Message edited by: Phillip ]
     
  7. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Ed: //I note that if i limited myself to the KJV only that i'd not be able to figure out this
    strange inconsistancy (which makes no doctrinal
    difference).//

    Su Wei: //now, how does not being KJVo help you to "figure out this inconsistency"??? by reading the notes in the NIV? //

    My bad. Should have said: "I note that if i limited myself only
    to the KJV trying to figure out why there is a 'he' in one KJV
    and a 'she' in another KJV -- i'd not have been able to figure
    out this
    strange inconsistancy. The he/she thing makes no doctrinal
    difference so this is only an acedemic discussion".
    So what is you question?

    Su Wei: "these however, do not cite as proofs that there was another translation work being done and then sold as the King James Version, as you propose?"

    I have no idea what i said that cause you to ask this.
    I did not discuss another translation work. I'm talking about
    printers printing different Bibles, seperate books. In Eureka
    Springs, Arkansas is a Bible Museum containing over 6,000 bibles
    in some 425 languages. Early printing was an error prone process.
    In the early 1700s especially, a printing set of places could only be
    used for 1,000 copies, maybe only 500 then it had to be reset and
    another printing run made.
     
  8. Su Wei

    Su Wei Active Member
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    From here:

    b 15 Most Hebrew manuscripts, many Hebrew
    manuscripts, Vulgate and Syriac, she

    This footnotes means that 'he' appears here
    in some sources and 'she appears in others.
    The problem here is NOT typesetting. The problem
    here is not dropping one letter in English.
    Syriac is written in what? Is it a different
    alphabet than Hebrew? I know the Latin
    Vulgate and the Hebrew manuscripts have different
    letters - we aren't talking about a simple
    missing letter in the English here.



    If there wasn't a seperate translation work, why do you bring in the other manuscripts as proof that the "she/he " problem isn't a printing one?

    so isn't: Su Wei: "these however, do not cite as proofs that there was another translation work being done and then sold as the King James Version, as you propose?"
    what you propose, or is it something else?
     
  9. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    I'm still not sure i understand the question.
    Let me say what i said before but in different
    words:

    Rth 3:15 (KJV1611 Edition):
    Also he said, Bring the vaile that thou hast vpon thee, and holde it. And when she helde it, he measured sixe measures of barley, and laide it on her: and he went into the citie.


    Ruth 3:15 (KJV1769 Edition):
    Also he said, Bring the vail that thou hast upon thee, and hold it. And when she held it, he measured six measures of barley, and laid it on her: and she went into the city.

    You claimed that the difference in addition was
    spelling standardizations (like 'citie' to 'city')
    or printer errors (no example here).

    The translators of the KJV1611 had multiple source
    texts in Hebrew (and other languages: Greek, Latin,
    Syric, etc.) They pieced together as best they could
    what they thought was the original text.

    The unknown changer(s) who produced what i call the
    KJV1769 also had multiple source
    texts in Hebrew (and other languages: Greek, Latin,
    Syric, etc.) but a different set than the original
    translators had.

    Consider the theory, there was a printing error corrected
    or made. Is the KJV1611 'he' have a 's' added to it
    by error to make the 'she' in the KJV1769 OR does
    the KJV1769 'she' correct and error in the KJV1769.
    Either way, there was an error in some version of
    the KJV which some say is WITHOUT ERROR.

    Today we have more than the KJV.
    For example, I have the Geneva Bible of about 1565:

    Rth 3:15 (Geneva Bible): Also he sayd, Bring the sheete that thou hast vpon thee, and holde it. And when she helde it, he measured sixe measures of barly, and layde them on her, and she went into the citie.

    Using the Geneva Bible, one might say the KJV1769 is
    correct and the original KJV1611 has a spelling error.

    BUT, consider (Bolding is mine):

    Ruth 3:15 (HCSB = The Holman Christian Standard Bible):
    And he told [Ruth], "Bring the shawl you're wearing and hold it out." When she held it out, he shoveled six [measures] of barley into her shawl, and she* went into the city.

    Translator footnote *:
    Some HB mss, Aram, Syr, Vg; MT reads he

    Using shorthand here expanded the translators of the
    HCSB (including some Baptists, the KJV translators
    included some Baptist killers) are saying:

    The 'she' is contained in most Hebrew manuscripts.
    But 'he' is contained in the the Aramaic manuscripts,
    the Syrian manuscripts, the Latin Vulgate manuscripts,
    and the Masoretic Text (i don't know if this is one
    or multiple manuscripts).

    Note that this is a
    different list than that i gave before of manuscripts
    containing "he". I used the NIV1978 translation before
    and today the HCSB2003 which was translated later
    so more manuscripts were available.

    Many of the more extreme KJV onlyists deny the usefulness
    of translator footnotes. Most of the Modern Versions (MV)s
    use translator footnotes. The original KJV of 1611
    used translator footnotes so some extreme KJVOs say the
    KJV1611 Edition has been contaminated. I do not agree
    with these extreme KJVOs. I side with those KJVO of
    a milder climate who understand the usefulness of the
    translator footnotes in God's preservation of the
    message of His Holy Written Word.
     
  10. Su Wei

    Su Wei Active Member
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    you answered me perfectly. ;)

    The unknown changer(s) who produced what i call the
    KJV1769 also had multiple source
    texts in Hebrew (and other languages: Greek, Latin,
    Syric, etc.) but a different set than the original
    translators had.



    and i said:
    That there was another commitee set up in 1769 to do somemore translating? where'd you get that from? what are the names of these men?

    so i do understand you. And since you can't prove your hypothesis, these unknown changers are unknown for very well they don't exist, i can't believe you. [​IMG]

    you just almost had me thinking that people were dabbling with GOd's word and calling it the KJV! Thank God He has indeed preserved His Word from defilement!
    [​IMG]
    [​IMG]
     
  11. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Su Wei: "you just almost had me thinking that people were dabbling with GOd's word and calling it the KJV!"

    But that is exactly what happened. Every fifth
    topic in this Bible Versions/Translations
    Forum speaks to this dabbling. Try reading
    some of the threads some day.
     
  12. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Here is on-line variant KJVs.
    (These are all projected as the current
    version of the KJV on-line):

    On-line KJV variant #1:

    http://www.bartleby.com/
    The King James Version 2000
    Matthew 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
    he was afterward ahungered.

    [follow this trail:
    Reference &gt; The Bible &gt; The King James Version &gt; Matthew &gt; 4 ]


    http://www.christnotes.org/
    The King James Version
    Matthew 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
    he was afterward an hungred.

    http://www.servantofjesuschrist.com/
    quoted St. Matthew 4:2:
    And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
    he was afterward a hungered.
    (my paper KJV1873 reads like this)

    http://www.Crosswalk.com/
    The King James Version (Authorized)
    Matthew 4:2
    And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
    he was afterward an hungred.
    (My Grandmother's Bible is like this.
    From the title page: New York: American Bible
    Society, 1851.)

    The "hee was afterward an hungred" is found in
    my paper 1611 Edition KJV but not on-line
    (in searchable form).
     
  13. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    From this site:

    http://members.aol.com/pilgrimpub/revision.htm

    Dr. Benjamin Blayney, KJV1769
    "Frequent recourse has been made to the Hebrew and Greek Originals"

    at: http://www.pathlights.com/onlinebooks/KJV-HB/KJV-Bible.htm

    //In later years, several revisions were made, which consisted solely of efforts to eliminate earlier printer’s errors.

    //The most important changes occurred in the 18th century. In 1762, Dr. Thomas Paris published a revision at Cambridge; and in 1769 Dr. Benjamin Blayney, after about four years’ work, brought out another at Oxford.

    //Blayney’s revision was especially valuable for the modernization of spelling, punctuation, expression, and elimination of printer’s errors.

    The 1769 Blayney revision is the King James Bible we use today.//

    While Great Britian and the English empire was selling
    these to books: KJV1762 and KJV1769, the American
    colonies were in hidden rebellion against the King's
    tax on Bibles. In 1776 the 13 colonies were in
    open rebellion. The American printed Bibles contained
    the KJV text but without tax. I call the KJV1762 and
    the KJV1769 and the American rip-offs collectively
    the KJV1769.
     
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