Mark 1:8 in the KJV I indeed have baptized you with water; but he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost. Concerning Mark 1:8, Baptist Thomas Patience [or Patient] in 1654 maintained that the rendering with water "suits with sprinkling" (Doctrine of Baptism, p. 9). Patience wrote: "It may be as well rendered, I baptize you in water, and he shall baptize you in the Holy Spirit." Patience added: "It may as well be rendered, I baptize you, or dip you into water, as it is rendered, they were casting a net into the sea, Mark 1:16, for which the words are affirmed to be the same, and it would be too improper a speech to say, John did baptize with the wilderness [1:4], and they were casting a net with the sea [1:16]" (Ibid.). Baptist S. E. Anderson observed: "The KJV of Matthew 3:11 reads, "I baptize you with water," but the Greek has it, "I immerse you in water" (Biblical Baptist Beliefs, p. 17). Henry Burrage also noted: "In those passages in our English version [KJV] where we find the words 'with water,' as in Matt. 3:11, 'I indeed baptize you with water,' the Greek has 'in water'" (Jenkens, Baptist Doctrines, p. 153). John R. Rice pointed out that "the word translated with in the above verse is usually translated in" (Bible Baptism, p. 41). In 1849, Baptist Richard Pengilly asserted: "'IN water'; not with water,' as it is rendered in the English authorized version" (Scripture Guide to Baptism, p. 14). Pengilly asked: "Would it not be absurd to render the passage [Matt. 3:6] 'John baptized with the Jordan'"? (p. 15). Augustus Strong maintained that at texts such as Matthew 3:11 the "en is to be taken, not instrumentally, but as indicating the element in which the immersion takes place" (Systematic Theology, p. 935). Wycliffe's, Tyndale's, Matthew's, Coverdale's Duoglott, Great, and Bishops' Bibles have "in water" at Matthew 3:11. Was that rendering "in water" in those pre-1611 English Bibles more accurate or less accurate than the rendering "with water" in the KJV? Wycliffe's, Tyndale's, Matthew's, Coverdale's Duoglott, Great, and Whittingham's also have "in water" at John 1:33. M. L. Moser, Jr., a KJV-only advocate, asked: "If we should say that John immersed in water, are we to be considered as Bible correctors?" (Baptist Challenge, June, 1989, p. 16). The 1842 revision of the KJV by Baptists and other believers began Matthew 3:11 as follows: "I indeed immerse you in water." Is the rendering "with water" or "in water" more accurate at Mark 1:8, Matthew 3:11, and John 1:33?