Is Word of God equal to scripture?

#1 They "distort" the Word of God - by abandoning "exegesis" as do other Christians when it "pleases them". This is incredibly common.

#2. It is very clear that Paul is making an argument FOR his case "that makes sense". He is not arguing that his view of the resurrection must be true - so that mormon-like people of his day will be happy. People he differs with but would like to see them happy anyway.

RATHER - he is using a Greek structure that allows the argument - what will Christians do who are baptized with this view of the resurrection and the dead - IF in fact the dead are not raised. Paul's argument is that baptism itself is declaring a view of the resurrection and the dead that demands acceptance of it.

Paul made this clear in Romans 6 stating that Baptism IS itself a witness to the resurrection of Christ - showing Christs death AND His resurrection. But if He was not raised - then there is no symbol needed in baptizm SHOWING the resurrection of the dead and we are still in our sins.

This point that Paul is making is not some "off the wall mormons-would-not-be-happy" point as you have proposed. Rather he is sticking with the salient points of his argument - and making a very strong case about Baptism being a witness to a certain view of the dead and of the resurrection.

But that would be "exegesis".

In Christ,

Bob