Jesus' Baptism

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Benjamin, Feb 18, 2006.

  1. Benjamin

    Benjamin
    Expand Collapse
    Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Oct 6, 2004
    Messages:
    4,666
    Likes Received:
    79
    Was Jesus not complete in any form of righteousness before baptism?

    (Mat 3:15) And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

    It wasn’t until after He was baptized that He saw the Spirit of God descend and light on Him, the heavens where opened unto Him.

    (Mat 3:16) And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

    Now He is suddenly ready to face the tempter after being revealed to man as the Son of God. Also this time is special in that:

    “the baptism of Jesus in the Jordan River by St. John the Baptist marked the only occasion when all three persons of the Holy Trinity manifested their physical presence simultaneously to humanity: God the Father by speaking through the clouds, God the Son being baptized in the river, and God the Holy Spirit in the shape of a dove overflying the scene.”

    What happened to Jesus at this time during baptism and in what way, if any, was He changed? What do we call this?
     
  2. bapmom

    bapmom
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Sep 3, 2005
    Messages:
    3,091
    Likes Received:
    0
    what happened was He got baptized. He wasn't changed by it. He was baptized in order to begin His ministry, but that does not mean that something changed within His being. Water baptism doesn't change us, it didn't change Jesus either.

    We call it a baptism.
     
  3. Benjamin

    Benjamin
    Expand Collapse
    Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Oct 6, 2004
    Messages:
    4,666
    Likes Received:
    79
    Were the heavens opened to Him beforehand?

    Was ALL righteousness already fulfilled?

    Sounds like He lit out of that water and went right up to deal with the Devil.

    There aren’t any other theological terms for this study other than Jesus’ baptism.
     
  4. Marcia

    Marcia
    Expand Collapse
    Active Member

    Joined:
    May 12, 2004
    Messages:
    11,139
    Likes Received:
    0
    Jesus was without sin and is God so he was never less than complete and perfect! His statement indicates he was compying with his Father's will and showing us this is the way to go.

    The baptism was not to make Jesus more righteous; it was an example of his humility and obedience.
     
  5. Rev. Lowery

    Rev. Lowery
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Nov 21, 2005
    Messages:
    344
    Likes Received:
    0
    I believe Jesus Man and God from the moment of conception baptism didn't do anything. It was merely an outward reflection of his inner strength and the faith He has in the Father.

    Matthew 3:11-17 (King James Version)
    11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance. but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:

    12 Whose fan is in his hand, and he will throughly purge his floor, and gather his wheat into the garner; but he will burn up the chaff with unquenchable fire.

    13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.

    14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?

    15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

    16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

    17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

    No more power was transfered to Jesus. John was doing Gods work and nothing more. Jesus knew that because he was a child of God, His Only Son, this is what was right and righteousness is simply doing what is right by God and according to His will.
     
  6. standingfirminChrist

    standingfirminChrist
    Expand Collapse
    Banned

    Joined:
    Dec 25, 2005
    Messages:
    9,454
    Likes Received:
    0
    Jesus was not God's only son. There are 11 verses in the Bible that refer to the 'sons of God' five of which are in the Old Testament.

    The Old Testament passages show that there were many sons of God... not just one Son.

    There are six instances of 'sons of God in the New Testament.

    Jesus was not the only son of God. He was the only begotten Son of God... meaning he was the only son that was born of God.
     
  7. Linda64

    Linda64
    Expand Collapse
    Banned

    Joined:
    Jul 31, 2004
    Messages:
    2,051
    Likes Received:
    0
    Mt. 3:13-17

    “Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.” – Mt 3:13-17

    The question which naturally arises is why the Lord Jesus Christ was baptized. He was not a sinner and did not need to be saved. Even John was hesitant to baptize Christ. We believe there were three purposes in Christ’s baptism. Two of these are prominently testified in the passage itself. The third is testified in the meaning of baptism. (1) In His baptism Christ was publicly anointed with the Holy Spirit and identified as the Messiah. (2) In His baptism Christ “fulfilled all righteousness” by identifying himself with sinners and being their example in all things. He requires His people to be baptized, and He set the example by being baptized Himself. (3) In His baptism, Christ foreviewed His coming death, burial, and resurrection.

    Things Hard To Be Understood
     
  8. Bro. Ruben

    Bro. Ruben
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Nov 23, 2005
    Messages:
    160
    Likes Received:
    0
    Was born of God?

    Jesus is God; infinite, eternal and everlasting.

    Can you kindly explain what do you mean by that. Also, please show me a verse.

    Thanks, Brother.
     
  9. standingfirminChrist

    standingfirminChrist
    Expand Collapse
    Banned

    Joined:
    Dec 25, 2005
    Messages:
    9,454
    Likes Received:
    0
  10. standingfirminChrist

    standingfirminChrist
    Expand Collapse
    Banned

    Joined:
    Dec 25, 2005
    Messages:
    9,454
    Likes Received:
    0
    btw, Isaiah 9:6 is further proof that Jesus is not the only son of God. It does not say 'the son is given', but 'a son is given'
     
  11. Johnv

    Johnv
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Oct 24, 2001
    Messages:
    21,321
    Likes Received:
    0
    Jesus is not the only son of God? Then, who are the other sons of God, I can find nothin in scripture to remotely suggest that God had more than one son. SOunds a bit Mormonish to me.

    I fail to see how "unto us a son is given" is in any way "proof" that there is more than one son. I tell people I have a son. I can't for the life of me figure out how a person could get the idae that I have more sons than the one I have, out of that one statement.
     
  12. standingfirminChrist

    standingfirminChrist
    Expand Collapse
    Banned

    Joined:
    Dec 25, 2005
    Messages:
    9,454
    Likes Received:
    0
    There are 5 verses in the old testament that refer to sons of God. God has more than one son
     
  13. Diggin in da Word

    Diggin in da Word
    Expand Collapse
    Banned

    Joined:
    Jan 8, 2006
    Messages:
    1,132
    Likes Received:
    0
    Sorry, John. sfiC is right again. The Bible is specific that there is more than one son.

    Job's account says they came to present themselves before the Lord.
     
  14. Johnv

    Johnv
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Oct 24, 2001
    Messages:
    21,321
    Likes Received:
    0
    Could you list them for me? In numerous places in the OT, the term "sons of God" referrs simply to believers, in the same manner that the NT uses "Children of God". That is something completely different from the idea that God has more than one son.
     
  15. standingfirminChrist

    standingfirminChrist
    Expand Collapse
    Banned

    Joined:
    Dec 25, 2005
    Messages:
    9,454
    Likes Received:
    0
    Job chapter 1 cannot be speaking of earthly believers, for when the sons of God are mentioned there, they are standing before the Lord in heaven.
     
  16. DeeJay

    DeeJay
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Oct 1, 2005
    Messages:
    1,916
    Likes Received:
    0
    This is what I have thought, am I right by this following?

    Son of God does not mean literal son as in created or procreated. Son of.... is used to describe a person is like the following. So son of God would be somebody who is like or attempts to be like God. It is used other times in the bible as in son of perdition (Judas) and Sons of thunder (John and James i think)

    Also children (sons and daughters) of God as in born again individuals.

    However Jesus is the only begoten Son of God. Begoten = unique = one of a kind = not like us.

    Maybe I missed the whole point of the conversation.
     
  17. Benjamin

    Benjamin
    Expand Collapse
    Well-Known Member

    Joined:
    Oct 6, 2004
    Messages:
    4,666
    Likes Received:
    79
    As for the virgin born only begotten Son , He was born under the law and obedient to it. Jesus was pure and sinless fulfilling righteousness as with His circumcision in His human nature, perfectly obedient to the Father and serving Him; while being sinless in and of Himself He had to put on the sins of the world.

    (Rom 5:19) For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

    I think His baptism was more than a sign to us to be obedient but also was Him being obedient and fully righteous to the Father as a servant in the flesh. I lean to think He was strengthened during His baptism for His Messianic ministry that was before Him by the second person in the trinity being added to Him while in His human nature to guide Him and encourage Him as a sinless servant.

    (Isa 42:1) Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.

    Did Jesus’ baptism add to Him the Spirit (2nd person HS) without measure at this time?

    (Joh 3:30) He must increase , but I must decrease.

    (Joh 3:31) He that cometh from above is above all: he that is of the earth is earthly, and speaketh of the earth: he that cometh from heaven is above all.

    (Joh 3:32) And what he hath seen and heard, that he testifieth; and no man receiveth his testimony.

    (Joh 3:33) He that hath received his testimony hath set to his seal that God is true.

    (Joh 3:34) For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
     
  18. bapmom

    bapmom
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Sep 3, 2005
    Messages:
    3,091
    Likes Received:
    0
    Benjamin,

    this last seems like a stretch to allow the teaching that we receive the Holy Spirit at baptism, and not at salvation.

    Jesus' baptism signified the beginning of His ministry. Thus from that moment on JESUS' fame and reputation and MINISTRY increased, while John the Baptist's was done, and thus was DEcreasing. If you apply the "increase" to the giving of the Holy Spirit, than you would logically have to apply the "DEcrease" on John's side to mean that John got less and less of the Holy Spirit.

    John knew that once JEsus' ministry began, those disciples who were John's would naturally become Jesus' disciples.......because that was the whole point of John's ministry.
     
  19. Marcia

    Marcia
    Expand Collapse
    Active Member

    Joined:
    May 12, 2004
    Messages:
    11,139
    Likes Received:
    0
    "Sons of God" in the OT passages refers to angels, who were directly created by God.

    But the angels are not deity as Jesus is and always was. Jesus incarnated but he always existed as the Son of God.
     
  20. bapmom

    bapmom
    Expand Collapse
    New Member

    Joined:
    Sep 3, 2005
    Messages:
    3,091
    Likes Received:
    0
    I do not believe that SFIC is trying to state some sort of new or heretical teaching. It is just that there are certain sects out there (Mormons for one)who claim we can BECOME gods because the Bible says that Jesus will give us the "power to become the sons of God". They use this verse very effectively against believers who don't realize that the Bible uses the term "son of God" in a couple of different ways. The difference between you and me as a "son of God" and JESUS as THE Son of God, is that Jesus is the only BEGOTTEN Son of God. This is also why it is so vital to word John 3:16 correctly. Do not leave out the BEGOTTEN, because it changes things if you do.
     

Share This Page

Loading...