Here is an exchange that took place on another thread. The quote is someone else's comment, followed by response. No one ever responded to this as the thread got busy and the comment got lost in the shuffle. Still, I'd like to know how non-dispy's explain the change I describe and what you call such changes. I don't disagree with this verse at all. I've never met a dispensationalist who did. Let me ask a question: Prior to the flood, men were not allowed to kill and eat animals. After the flood, God told Noah that men could eat animals. Then, God told Moses that there were restrictions on what animals people could eat. Then, Jesus taught, followed by the teaching of the apostles that all meat was clean to eat. So, the instructions from God about eating meat changed over time. This is not a case of God changing, for that would contradict the verse above; a verse upon which we all agree. Rather this is a case of a change in.....?